All categories

2 years ago

Find the difference. 100 – (-87)

Mathematics

2 answers:

katen-ka-za [31]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

187

Step-by-step explanation:

100 - (-87)

100 + 87

187

PLZ MARK as BRAINLIEST

Firlakuza [10]2 years ago

5 0

Answer: 187

Step-by-step explanation:

negative cancels negative so that will turn to positive. (-) x (-) = +

100- (-87)

100 + 87

= 187

You might be interested in

You have just opened a new nightclub, Russ' Techno Pitstop, but are unsure of how high to set the cover charge (entrance fee). O

Neko [114]

Answer:

a)q(p)=-15p+ +300

b)R(p)=-15p²+300p

c)C(p)=-30p+1600

d.1)P(p)=-15p²+330p-1600

d.2)p=$11

Step-by-step explanation:

(a).Before getting started, we are going to consider the cartesian plane, where x-axis corresponds to the cover charge and y-axis corresponds to number of guests per night . There, we will locate the following coordinates according to the previous information:

(9,165) (10,150).

Remember that the slope-intercept form of the linear equation is y=mx+b where m is the slope and b is te intercept.

The slope can be calculated by the next formula:

$m=\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}$

In this case we will assign (9,165) as the first coordinate and (10,150) as the second one. The order does not matter. At the end we get the same value for m.

Therefore:

$m=\frac{150-165}{10-9} = -15$

Now, we have the slope and two poitns. According to this, and taking into account that point-slope form of the equation of a line is y-y1=m(x-x1), find a linear demand equation.

Any of two coordintates can be selected. In this case we will select the second one.

y-150=-15(x-10) equation 1

Solve equation 1 for y

y=-15x+150+150

y=-15x+300

Above we had defined x as cover charge (p) and y as number of guests (q). Thus, rewrite equation 1.

q(p)=-15p+ +300.

it equation shows the number of guests per night as a function of the cover charge,

(b). The nightly revenue can be calculated multplying the price of the cover charge by the number of guests. So, we just have to multiply the equation 1 by p.

p*q(p)=p*(-15p +300)

R(p)=-15p²+300p equation 2

(c) To get the cost function of the nightclub we just have to multiply the cost of the two non-alcoholic drinks by the number of the guests ( equation 1) and add to it nightly overheads.

C(p)=2*(-15p+300)+1000

C(p)= -30p+600+1000

C(p)=-30p+1600 equation 3

(d) In order to find the profit in terms of the cover charge we will subtract nightly costs ( equation 3) from nightly revenue (equation 2)

P(p)=R(p)-C(p)

P(p)=-15p²+300p - (-30p+1600)

P(p)=-15p²+300p+30p-1600

P(p)=-15p²+330p-1600

To determine that the entrance fee we should charge for a maximum profit we are going to use the first derivative test (y'(x)=0) in order to find an extremum point.

Compute the first derivative of P(p)

P'(p)=-30p+330=0

30p=330

p=330/30

p= $11

The entrance fee that we should charge for a maximum profit is p=$11 per guest.

5 0

3 years ago

Please help me with this difficult question?!!

Goryan [66]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Y is inversely proportional to x . When y = 25 , x = 4 Work out y when x = 20

ehidna [41]

Answer: 125

Step-by-step explanation:

4/25 = 20/Y

Cross multiply to get the equation

4Y = 500

Divide both sides by 4

Y=125

7 0

3 years ago

19. Ram and Rahim are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3: 2. Kabir is admitted as a partner for 1/5th share of

Serhud [2]

Answer:

make me brainlist

Step-by-step explanation: firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3

2. From Ist April, 2020 they decided to share the future profits equally. On this date, the General Reserve

showed a balance of 1,60,000; Revaluation of fixed assets resulted into a gain of "1,02,000 and stock resulted

to a loss of 22,000. On this date, the goodwill of the firm was valued at $3,60.000

Pas necessary journal entries for the above transactions on reconstitution of the form

Bolutions

8 0

3 years ago

Suppose that 11% of all steel shafts produced by a certain process are nonconforming but can be reworked (rather than having to

attashe74 [19]

Answer:

0.9726 = 97.26% approximate probability that X is at most 30

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

$E(X) = np$

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

$\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}$

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , the zscore of a measure X is given by:

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}$

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that $\mu = E(X)$ , $\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}$ .