Answer:
Thermometer will read 26 degrees Celsius.
Please vote for Brainliest and I hope this helps!
The answer will be 8 because kedks
Answer:
- Fx = -9.15 N
- Fy = 1.72 N
- F∠γ ≈ 9.31∠-10.6°
Explanation:
You apparently want the sum of forces ...
F = 8.80∠-56° +7.00∠52.8°
Your angle reference is a bit unconventional, so we'll compute the components of the forces as ...
f∠α = (-f·cos(α), -f·sin(α))
This way, the 2nd quadrant angle that has a negative angle measure will have a positive y component.
= -8.80(cos(-56°), sin(-56°)) -7.00(cos(52.8°), sin(52.8°))
≈ (-4.92090, 7.29553) +(-4.23219, -5.57571)
≈ (-9.15309, 1.71982)
The resultant component forces are ...
Then the magnitude and direction of the resultant are
F∠γ = (√(9.15309² +1.71982²))∠arctan(-1.71982/9.15309)
F∠γ ≈ 9.31∠-10.6°
Answer:
The difference between frictionless ramp and a regular ramp is that on a frictionless ramp the ball cannot roll it can only slide, but on a regular ramp the ball can roll without slipping.
We will use conversation of energy.
![K_A_1 + U_A_1 = K_A_2 + U_A_2\\\frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 + \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + 0 = 0 + mgH_A](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=K_A_1%20%2B%20U_A_1%20%3D%20K_A_2%20%2B%20U_A_2%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7DI%5Comega%5E2%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7Dmv%5E2%20%2B%200%20%3D%200%20%2B%20mgH_A)
Note that initial potential energy is zero because the ball is on the bottom, and the final kinetic energy is zero because the ball reaches its maximum vertical distance and stops.
For the ball B;
![K_B_1 + U_B_1 = K_B_2 + U_B_2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=K_B_1%20%2B%20U_B_1%20%3D%20K_B_2%20%2B%20U_B_2)
![\frac{1}{2}I_B\omega^2 + \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + 0 = 0 + mgH_B](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7DI_B%5Comega%5E2%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7Dmv%5E2%20%2B%200%20%3D%200%20%2B%20mgH_B)
The initial velocities of the balls are equal. Their maximum climbing point will be proportional to their final potential energy. Since their initial kinetic energies are equal, their final potential energies must be equal as well.
Hence, both balls climb the same point.
Explanation:
Answer:
0.3858 Nm
Explanation:
The torque of the couple is the dot product of the force vector and the couple vector from 1 end of the ruler to the center. This equals to the product of their magnitude times the cosine() of the angle made by their direction:
![T = \vec{F} \cdot \vec{s} = Fscos(50^0) = 2 * 0.3 * 0.643 = 0.3858 Nm](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=T%20%3D%20%5Cvec%7BF%7D%20%5Ccdot%20%5Cvec%7Bs%7D%20%3D%20Fscos%2850%5E0%29%20%3D%202%20%2A%200.3%20%2A%200.643%20%3D%200.3858%20Nm)