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slavikrds [6]
2 years ago
5

g On January 2, 2019, Shank Co. issued at par $300,000 of 9% convertible bonds. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into 60 shares.

No bonds were converted during 2019. Shank had 100,000 shares of common stock outstanding during 2019. Shank 's 2019 net income was $340,000 and the income tax rate was 30%. Shank's diluted earnings per share for 2019 would be (rounded to the nearest penny) Group of answer choices $3.04. $2.19. $3.26. $3.40. $2.29
Business
1 answer:
Softa [21]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$1.89.

Explanation:

diluted earnings per share = earnings attributable to common stockholder ÷ weighted average number of common stock holders

                                            = $340,000 ÷ (100,000 + 18,000)

                                            = $1.89

Shank's diluted earnings per share for 2019 would be $1.89.

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Aerotron Electronics is considering the purchase of a water filtration system to assist in circuit board manufacturing. The syst
tino4ka555 [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

Annual worth: this will be the annuity payment equivalent to all the cashflow of the investment. Thus the PMT of the net present value

Cash Investment at F0: <em>230,000/2 = 115,000</em>

present value of 7,500 salvage value:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  7,500.00

time   7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

\frac{7500}{(1 + 0.1)^{7} } = PV  

PV  <em> 3,848.69 </em>

<u>Then, we need to calculate the present value of the loan discounted at 10%</u>

half the investment is finance: 230,000 / 2 = <em>115,000</em>

Then, this capitalize 2 year at 8% before the first payment:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 115,000.00

time 2 year

MARR: 10% = 0.08000

115000 \: (1+ 0.08)^{2} = Amount

Amount 134,136.00

Now we need to discount this loan at 10% which is our rate of return:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  134,136.00

time   2.00

MARR: 10% = 0.1

\frac{134136}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV  

PV   <em>110,856.20 </em>

Finally: we add this values to get the resent worth:

<em>115,000 +  110,856.20 - 3,848.69 = </em><em>222,007.51</em>

<em />

Last step, we calculate the PMT of the present worth:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV 222,007.51

time 7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

222007.51 \div \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-7} }{0.1} = C\\

C  $ 45,601.564

<em />

6 0
3 years ago
When reconciling a bank account, which one of the following is considered a timing difference (difference between the bank balan
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

Outstanding checks

Explanation:

One of the reasons why a cash book and a bank statement might <em>not show identical entries arise</em> from outstanding checks.

Outstanding checks are payments that have not yet been cleared and debited to the account at the bank.

8 0
2 years ago
Bruno's Lunch Counter is expanding and expects operating cash flows of $26,900 a year for 6 years as a result. This expansion re
8090 [49]

Answer:

Net present value of this expansion project is 8234.

Explanation:

To get the net present value,  we make a cash-flow in excel. See document attached.

At moment 0 the investment is =$(92.700), also we consider the working capital =(6.600)

Moment 1 to 6 = $26.900

We calculate the Net cash flow (that is the difference between benefits and cost).

To get net present value, we use VNA formula.  ( =VNA(required rate of return; Net cash flow from moment 0 to moment 6) +Net cash flow at moment 0)

Net present value is 8234

4 0
3 years ago
Gardial &amp; Son has an ROA of 11%, a 2% profit margin, and a return on equity equal to 17%. What is the company's total assets
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

Total assets turnover = 5.5

Equity multiplier = 1.55

Explanation:

The return on assets (ROA = 11%) is defined as the profit margin (2%) multiplied by the total assets turnover (TAT):

0.11=0.02*TAT\\TAT = 5.5

The return on equity (ROE = 17%) is defined as the product of the return on assets (ROA = 11%) by the equity multiplier (EM):

0.17=0.11*EM\\EM=1.55

The company's total assets turnover is 5.5

The firm's equity multiplier is 1.55

4 0
3 years ago
When a buyer is represented by a licensee, who is responsible for following up on issues identified in the inspection report to
s344n2d4d5 [400]

The buyer's agent  is responsible for following up on issues identified in the inspection report to ensure that they are addressed.

<h3>What is a buyer's agent called?</h3>

Long story short: a buyer's agent can technically be called the “selling agent,” once a contract has been entered into.

A listing agent is referred to as the “seller's agent,” since they are representing the seller.

<h3>What is the difference between agent and buyer?</h3>

A seller real estate agent will work only for the seller and have only the seller's interest at heart.

A buyer's broker will work only for the buyer and have only the buyer's interest at heart.

Learn more about buyer's agent here:

<h3>brainly.com/question/15026765</h3><h3 /><h3>#SPJ4</h3>
8 0
1 year ago
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