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MrRa [10]
2 years ago
15

I'm confused! Please help me if you can!

Physics
2 answers:
kenny6666 [7]2 years ago
6 0
The answer would be a
guajiro [1.7K]2 years ago
5 0

A. Compression

The spring is compressing at point B

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An electron moves at 0.130 c as shown in the figure (Figure 1). There are points: A, B, C, and D 2.10 μm from the electron.
Olegator [25]

Hi there!

We can use Biot-Savart's Law for a moving particle:
B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v}\times \vec{r}}{r^2 }

B = Magnetic field strength (T)
v = velocity of electron (0.130c = 3.9 × 10⁷ m/s)

q = charge of particle (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

r = distance from particle (2.10 μm)

There is a cross product between the velocity vector and the radius vector (not a quantity, but specifies a direction). We can write this as:

B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }

Where 'θ' is the angle between the velocity and radius vectors.

a)
To find the angle between the velocity and radius vector, we find the complementary angle:

θ = 90° - 60° = 30°

Plugging 'θ' into the equation along with our other values:

B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }\\\\B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(30)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 }

B = \boxed{7.07 *10^{-10} T}

b)
Repeat the same process. The angle between the velocity and radius vector is 150°, and its sine value is the same as that of sin(30°). So, the particle's produced field will be the same as that of part A.

c)

In this instance, the radius vector and the velocity vector are perpendicular so

'θ' = 90°.

B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(90)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 } = \boxed{1.415 * 10^{-9}T}

d)
This point is ALONG the velocity vector, so there is no magnetic field produced at this point.

Aka, the radius and velocity vectors are parallel, and since sin(0) = 0, there is no magnetic field at this point.

\boxed{B = 0 T}

3 0
2 years ago
HELP ASAP! <br>why is rolling friction much smaller than sliding friction? Also give an example.​
IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

Rolling friction is much smaller than sliding friction because Rolling friction is considerably less than sliding friction as there is no work done against the body that is rolling by the force of friction. For a body to start rolling a small amount of friction is required at the point where it rests on the other surface, else it would slide instead of roll.

Rolling Friction example: Anything with weels (cars,skateboards) or a ball rooling.

Sliding Friction example: Bicycle brakes,skinning your knee walking,writing.

6 0
3 years ago
Why do the passengers in high-altitude jet planes feel the sensation of weight while passengers in an orbiting space vehicle, su
kykrilka [37]

Passengers in an aircraft are subject to the Normal and Gravity Force acting on them at a low 'orbit', so tiny that it can be many times compared to the same surface of the earth when speaking in general terms.

In a high orbit space vehicle or in the same space, said force decreases considerably or simply disappears, generating the sensation of weightlessness.

Remember that the Force of Gravity is given under the principle

F_g = \frac{GMm}{r^2}

Where,

G = Gravitational Universal constant

M = Mass of the planet

m = mass of the object

r = Distance from center of the planet

When the radius grows considerably the gravitational force begins to decrease.

7 0
2 years ago
A student measures the speed of a rolling ball three times. She adds the measurements and divides by 3. What quantity did the st
Lapatulllka [165]
They calculated the mean value
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Your roommate leaves a 120W fan running in your apartment.Over the course of an hour,how much thermal energy does the fan add to
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

4.32\cdot 10^5 J

Explanation:

Power is related to energy by the following relationship:

P=\frac{E}{t}

where

P is the power used

E is the energy used

t is the time elapsed

In this problem, we know that

- the power of the fan is P = 120 W

- the fan has been running for one hour, which corresponds to a time of

t = 1 h \cdot (60 min/h)(60 s/min)=3600 s

So we can re-arrange the previous equation to find E, the energy (in the form of thermal energy) released by the fan:

E=Pt=(120 W)(3600 s)=4.32\cdot 10^5 J

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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