Answer:
Weight of the fluid that the object displaces.
Explanation:
When the fluid is completely immersed in a fluid, it experiences pressure from all the direction. While the object is immersed in the fluid a force acts on it in the opposite direction, i.e., upwards. This force is termed as buoyant force.
Also, as per the Archimedes' Principle, the force experience by the object is the same as the weight of the fluid that gets displaced by the object.
Thus on complete immersion of the object in the fluid, it experiences the force same as the weight of the fluid that gets displaced
Ok i apologise for the messy working but I'll try and explain my attempt at logic
Also note i ignore any air resistance for this.
First i wrote the two equations I'd most likely need for this situation, the kinetic energy equation and the potential energy equation.
Because the energy right at the top of the swing motion is equal to the energy right in the "bottom" of the swing's motion (due to conservation of energy), i made the kinetic energy equal to the potential energy as indicated by Ek = Ep.
I also noted the "initial" and "final" height of the swing with hi and hf respectively.
So initially looking at this i thought, what the heck, there's no mass. Then i figured that using the conservation of energy law i could take the mass value from the Ek equation and use it in the Ep equation. So what i did was take the Ek equation and rearranged it for m as you can hopefully see. Then i substituted the rearranged Ek equation into the Ep equation.
So then the equation reads something like Ep = (rearranged Ek equation for m) × g (which is -9.81) × change in height (hf - hi).
Then i simplify the equation a little. When i multiply both sides by v^2 i can clearly see that there is one E on each side (at that stage i don't need to clarify which type of energy it is because Ek = Ep so they're just the same anyway). So i just canceled them out and square rooted both sides.
The answer i got was that the max velocity would be 4.85m/s 3sf, assuming no losses (eg energy lost to friction).
I do hope I'm right and i suppose it's better than a blank piece of paper good luck my dude xx
Answer:
It has no shape of its own but has a definite volume.
Explanation:
Gases have no shape but a definite volume
Im pretty sure its the first option
Answer:
The loop penetrate 4 cm into the magnetic field.
Explanation:
Given that,
Width w= 5 cm
Length L= 10 cm
mass m = 40 g
Resistance R = 20 mΩ
Initial velocity = 1 m/s
Magnetic field = 2 T
We need to calculate the induced emf
Using formula of emf

Put the value into the formula


We need to calculate the current
Using Lenz's formula



We need to calculate the force
Using formula of force


Put the value into the formula


We need to calculate the acceleration
Using formula of acceleration

Put the value in to the formula


We need to calculate the distance
Using equation of motion





Hence, The loop penetrate 4 cm into the magnetic field.