Answer:
2.8
Explanation:
The ideal mechanical advantage of the pulley IMA = D'/D where D' = diameter of output pulley = 7 inches and D = diameter of input pulley = 2.5 inches
So, IMA = D'/D
= 7/2.5
= 2.8
So, the ideal mechanical advantage of the pulley IMA = 2.8
The total number of trips that the vehicle has to make based on the given sequence of operation is 120 trips.
<em>"Your</em><em> </em><em>question is not complete, it seems to be missing the following information;"</em>
The sequence of operation is A - E - D - C - B - A - F
The given parameters;
- <em>number of pieces that will flow from the first machine A to machine F, = 2,000 pieces</em>
- <em>initial unit load specified in the first machine, L₁ = 50</em>
- <em>final unit load, L₂ = 100 </em>
- <em>the capacity of the vehicle = 1 unit load</em>
<em />
The given sequence of operation of the vehicle;
A - E - D - C - B - A - F
<em>the vehicle makes </em><em>6 trips</em><em> for </em><em>100</em><em> unit </em><em>loads</em>
The total number of trips that the vehicle has to make, in order to transport the 2000 pieces of the load given, is calculated as follows.
100 unit loads ----------------- 6 trips
2000 unit loads --------------- ?

Thus, the total number of trips that the vehicle has to make based on the given sequence of operation is 120 trips.
Learn more here:brainly.com/question/21468592
Answer:

Explanation:
From the information given:
Life requirement = 40 kh = 40 
Speed (N) = 520 rev/min
Reliability goal
= 0.9
Radial load
= 2600 lbf
To find C10 value by using the formula:

where;


The Weibull parameters include:



∴
Using the above formula:


![C_{10} = 3640 \times \bigg[\dfrac{1248}{0.9933481582}\bigg]^{\dfrac{3}{10}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C_%7B10%7D%20%3D%203640%20%5Ctimes%20%5Cbigg%5B%5Cdfrac%7B1248%7D%7B0.9933481582%7D%5Cbigg%5D%5E%7B%5Cdfrac%7B3%7D%7B10%7D%7D)

Recall that:
1 kN = 225 lbf
∴


Answer:
hmmmm i think orange I may be wrong....
Explanation: