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ahrayia [7]
3 years ago
10

Please, can someone help???

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kipish [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

using sas both C angles are the same because of vertical angles

since what is given we find that BD and AE are straight lines meaning that BA and ED are parallel

this means that angle B is congruent to angle D and the same for A and E

using sas or asa we can determine BCA and ECD congruent

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Let X be the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. The article "Methodo
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

a) P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.6288

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954=0.4335

b) P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452

c) P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

d) P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable that represent the number of material anomalies occurring in a particular region of an aircraft gas-turbine disk. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda=4)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda=4  , Var(X)=\lambda=2, Sd(X)=2

a. Compute both P(X≤4) and P(X<4).

P(X\leq 4)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)+P(X=4)

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^0}{0!}=e^{-4}=0.0183

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^1}{1!}=0.0733

P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^2}{2!}=0.1465

P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^3}{3!}=0.1954

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X\leq 4)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.1954+0.1954=0.9646

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+ P(X=2)+P(X=3)

P(X< 4)=P(X\leq 3)=0.0183+0.0733+ 0.1465+0.5311=0.7692

b. Compute P(4≤X≤ 8).

P(4\leq X\leq 8)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+ P(X=6)+P(X=7)+P(X=8)

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563

P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042

P(X=7)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^7}{7!}=0.0595

P(X=8)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^8}{8!}=0.0298

P(4\leq X\leq 8)=0.1954+0.1563+ 0.1042+0.0595+0.0298=0.5452

c. Compute P(8≤ X).

P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

P(X \geq 8) = 1-P(X

d. What is the probability that the number of anomalies exceeds its mean value by no more than one standard deviation?

The mean is 4 and the deviation is 2, so we want this probability

P(4\leq X \leq 6)=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+P(X=6)

P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^4}{4!}=0.1954

P(X=5)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^5}{5!}=0.1563

P(X=6)=\frac{e^{-4} 4^6}{6!}=0.1042

P(4\leq X \leq 6)=0.1954+0.1563+0.1042=0.4559

4 0
3 years ago
Complete the equation for the standard form of the line that has an x-intercept of –4 and a y-intercept of 3
Kazeer [188]

Answer:

The equation for the standard form of the line will be:

  • 3x + (-4y) = -12

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

  • x-intercept = –4
  • y-intercept = 3

The equation of a line in standard form

  • Ax + By = C

where A is a positive integer and B, C are integers

We know the equation of a line in  slope-intercept form

y = mx+b

where m is the slope and b the y-intercept

To calculate the slope, use the gradient formula

m = y₂-y₁ / x₂-x₁

let  

(x₁, y₁) = (-4, 0)             ∵ x-intercept = (-4, 0)

(x₂, y₂) = (0, 3)              ∵ y-intercept = (0, 3)

m = y₂-y₁ / x₂-x₁

    = (3 - 0) / (0 - (-4))

    = 3 / 4

Thus, the equation in slope-intercept form:

y = mx+b

y = 3/4x + 3

  • Writing in standard form

Multiply y = 3/4x + 3 by 4

4y = 3x + 12

3x-4y = -12

3x + (-4y) = -12

Thus, the equation for the standard form of the line will be:

  • 3x + (-4y) = -12

7 0
3 years ago
One bulb of elephant garlic cost $2 . How many bulbs of elephant garlic can you buy for $14
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 14 divided by 2 is 7, you can get 7 bulbs of elephant garlic.

Hope this helps.

6 0
3 years ago
In a binomial experiment, if there are two possible outcomes and P(S) = 0.36, what is P(F)?
vampirchik [111]

Answer:

D. 0.64

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason I got this answer is because the problem tells us that there is a success rate of .36, so you would subtract .36 from 1 to get .64. The success rate and failure rate should always be equal to 1.

8 0
3 years ago
Help please it’s due tomorrow.
____ [38]
What so you need to know?
8 0
3 years ago
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