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3 years ago

THIS IS MY EXAM HURRY PLS

Physics

2 answers:

Galina-37 [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

haha sucks for you, hope this helps

Explanation:

tangare [24]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

elements in the same column have the same number of neutrons. elements with similar mass are placed in the same column.

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A 49.0 kg wheel, essentially a thin hoop with radius 0.730 m, is rotating at 114 rev/min. It must be brought to a stop in 22.0 s

belka [17]

Explanation:

Mass of the wheel, m = 49 kg

Radius of the hoop, r = 0.73 m

Initial angular speed of the wheel, $\omega_i=114\ rev/min = 11.93\ rad/s$

Final angular speed of the wheel, $\omega_f=0$

Time, t = 22 s

(a) If I is the moment of inertia of the hoop. It is equal to,

$I=mr^2$

$I=49\times (0.73)^2$

$I=26.11\ kg-m^2$

We know that the work done is equal to change in kinetic energy.

$W=\Delta E$

$W=\dfrac{1}{2}I(\omega_f^2-\omega_i^2)$

$W=-\dfrac{1}{2}\times 26.11\times (11.93^2)$

W = -1858.05 Joules

(b) Let P is the average power. It is given by :

$P=\dfrac{W}{t}$

$P=\dfrac{1858.05\ J}{22\ s}$

P =84.45 watts

Hence, this is the required solution.

4 0

3 years ago

What is the displacement of a car in 50 s if it is travelling with a velocity of 25 m/s?

Schach [20]

Answer:

v =25 m/s

time= 50 s

Velocity =Displacement/Time

Displacement = Velocity × Time

S = 25×50

s=1250m

Explanation:

v =25 m/s

time= 50 s

Velocity =Displacement/Time

Displacement = Velocity × Time

7 0

3 years ago

Which vector goes from (-1,-2) to (3, 4)? A. d B. c C. b D. a

kogti [31]

vector b is the answer...............

5 0

3 years ago

A constant magnetic field passes through a single rectangular loop whose dimensions are 0.35m x 0.55m. The magnetic field has a

Cloud [144]

Answer:

E = 0.38V

Explanation:

See attachment below.

4 0

3 years ago

A flat loop of wire consisting of a single turn ofcross-sectional area 7.90 cm2is perpendicular to a magnetic field that increas

Westkost [7]

To develop this problem, it is necessary to apply the concepts related to Faraday's law and Magnetic Flow, which is defined as the change that the magnetic field has in a given area. In other words

$\Phi = BA Cos\theta$

Where

B= Magnetic Field

A = Area

$\theta =$ Angle between magnetic field lines and normal to the area

The differentiation of this value allows us to obtain in turn the induced emf or electromotive force.

In this case we have that the flat loop of wire is perpendicular to the magnetic field, therefore the angle is 0 degrees, since its magnetic field acts parallel to the area:

$\theta =$ 0 then our expression can be written as

$\Phi = BA$