Answer:
55
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
a. $45.86
b. $43.87
c. Percentage change = -4.40%)
Step-by-step explanation:
a. Let the price of share at the beginning of first year be represented with X
Now, Price of company's share dropped by 3.50% at the end of first year.
So, Price of share at the end of first year = x - 3.5% of x
= x - 0.035x
= 1x - 0.035x
= 0.965x
But it is equal to $44.25
=> 0.965x = 44.25
x = 44.25 / 0.965
x = 45.8549223
x = $45.86
b. During second year price of share decreased by $1.99. Therefore, Price of share at the end of second year = $45.86 - $1.99 = $43.87
c. Percentage change in the price of shares over two years = {(45.86 - 43.87)/45.86} *100
= (1.99/45.86)*100
= 0.04339294 * 100
= 4.40%
Now, as price of shares has dropped, the percentage change will be negative. (Δ% = -4.40%)
Product of two consecutive integer so this mean that x and y but y = x+1 than
x(x+1)=1332
x^2 +x -1332 =0 so bc. you get 36*37=1332 and 37x-36x=x so you can rewriting this quadratic factorized completlie
x^2 +x -1332 = 0
(x+37)(x-36)=0
x+37=0
x=-37 so the larger integer result that will be 37
Both charms are "similar".
And notice one diameter is 1, the other is 4, the diameters are on a ratio of 1:4 then, and so both figures are on a ratio of 1:4.
so, if another unit, like the circumference is at 3.14 on the small one, then the large one will have a circumference 4 times that much, because the circumferences are also on a 1:4 ratio.
B. because you do 16*2*h + 8*2*h and you get 128 + 64 = 192
