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Roman55 [17]
3 years ago
7

D

Physics
1 answer:
GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

I don't know about these problems

Explanation:

I don't know about these problems at all.

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Show all work please I am stuck​
MissTica

Answer:

Explanation:

1 meter = 39.37 inches

meters x inches/meters = inches

6.23x10^-4 m x 39.37 in./m=0.245...=2.45x10^-2

5 0
2 years ago
A person carries a plank of wood 1.6 m long with one hand pushing down on it at one end with a force F1 and the other hand holdi
Elis [28]

Answer: 115.52\ N

Explanation:

Given

Length of plank is 1.6 m

Force F_1 is applied on the left side of plank

Force F_2 is applied 43 cm from the left end O.

Mass of the plank is m=13.7\ kg

for equilibrium

Net torque must be zero. Taking torque about left side of the plank

\Rightarrow mg\times 0.8-F_2\times 0.43=0\\\\\Rightarrow F_2=\dfrac{13.7\times 9.8\times 0.8}{0.43}\\\\\Rightarrow F_2=249.78\ N

Net vertical force must be zero on the plank

\Rightarrow F_1+W-F_2=0\\\Rightarrow F_1=F_2-W\\\Rightarrow F_1=249.78-13.7\times 9.8\\\Rightarrow F_1=115.52\ N

8 0
2 years ago
Find the minor measurement of the vernier scale by taking 49, 1mm divisions of the main scale and dividing it into 50 vernier di
olga nikolaevna [1]
<h2>♨ANSWER♥</h2>

length of V-50 = 49mm

length of V-1 = 49/50mm

= 0.98mm

so,

minor measurement = (M-1) - (V-1)

= 1mm -0.98mm

= 0.02mm

☆ Therefore,

The minor measurement of the vernier scale is 0.02mm.

<u>☆</u><u>.</u><u>.</u><u>.</u><u>hope this helps</u><u>.</u><u>.</u><u>.</u><u>☆</u>

_♡_<em>mashi</em>_♡_

6 0
2 years ago
A bike travels 30m/s for 3 seconds. How far did it travel?
Elena L [17]
He traveled 90 meters
8 0
3 years ago
You have a summer job at a company that developed systems to safely lower large loads down ramps. Your team is investigating a m
Fofino [41]

Answer:

Note that the emf induced is

emf = B d v cos (A)

---> v = emf / [B d cos (A)]

where

B = magnetic field

d = distance of two rails

v = constant speed

A = angle of rails with respect to the horizontal

Also, note that

I = emf/R

where R = resistance of the bar

Thus,

I = B d v cos (A) / R

Thus, the bar experiences a magnetic force of

F(B) = B I d = B^2 d^2 v cos (A) / R, horizontally, up the incline.

Thus, the component of this parallel to the incline is

F(B //) = F(B) cos(A) = B I d = B^2 d^2 v cos^2 (A) / R

As this is equal to the component of the weight parallel to the incline,

B^2 d^2 v cos^2 (A) / R = m g sin (A)

where m = the mass of the bar.

Solving for v,

v = [R m g sin (A) / B^2 d^2 cos^2 (A)]   [ANSWER, the constant speed, PART A]

******************************

v = [R m g sin (A) / B^2 d^2 cos^2 (A)]

Plugging in the units,

m/s = [ [ohm * kg * m/s^2] / [T^2 m^2] ]

Note that T = kg / (s * C), and ohm = J * s/C^2

Thus,

m/s = [ [J * s/C^2 * kg * m/s^2] / [(kg / (s * C))^2 m^2] ]

= [ [J * s/C^2 * kg * m/s^2] / [(kg^2 m^2) / (s^2 C^2)]

As J = kg*m^2/s^2, cancelling C^2,,

= [ [kg*m^2/s^2 * s * kg * m/s^2] / [(kg^2 m^2) / (s^2)]

Cancelling kg^2,

= [ [m^2/s^2 * s * m/s^2] / [(m^2) / (s^2)]

Cancelling m^2/s^2,

= [s * m/s^2]

Cancelling s,

=m/s   [DONE! WE SHOWED THE UNITS ARE CORRECT! ]

8 0
3 years ago
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