Answer:
Option 3: -48 cm
Explanation:
We are given:
refractive index; n = 1.5
radius of curvature; r2 = 24 cm
Formula for the focal length is given as;
1/f = (n - 1) × [(1/r1) - (1/r2)]
As r1 tends to infinity, 1/r1 = 0
Thus,we now have;
1/f = (n - 1) × (-1/r2)
Plugging in the relevant values;
1/f = (1.5 - 1) × (-1/24)
1/f = -0.02083333333
f = -1/0.02083333333
f = -48 cm
Answer:
A thin wire has more resistance than a thick wire
A short wire has less resistance than a long wire
A warm wire has more resistance than a cool wire
Answer:
if the image is on the book yes , no its can be both
Explanation:
<span>3. The attempt at a solution So basically what I did was divided into components. x: (3)(2000) = (3000)*v_x y: (v_vw)*(10000) = (3000)*v_y v_x, v_y is the velocity (after collision) in the x and y direction, respectively, of both cars stuck together (since it is an inelastic collision). v_vw is the initial velocity of the Volkswagen. Now what I did was that the angle is 35 degrees north of east. So basically made a triangle and figured that tan(35) = (v_y)/(v_x). This means (v_x)*(tan35) = v_y. Then, I simplified the component equations to get: x: 2 = v_x y: v_vw = 3*v_y Then plugging in for v_y, I got: v_vw = 3(2)(tan35) = 4.2 m/s as the velocity of the volkswagen. However, the answer key says 8.6 m/s. Could someone please help me out? Thanks Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org • Game over? Computer beats human champ in ancient Chinese game • Simplifying solar cells with a new mix of materials • Imaged 'jets' reveal cerium's post-shock inner strength Oct 24, 2012 #2 ehild Homework Helper Gold Member What directions you call x and y?
Reference https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/2d-momentum-problem.646613/</span>
Answer:
V = 9.682 × 10^(-6) V
Explanation:
Given data
thick = 190 µm
wide = 4.20 mm
magnitude B = 0.78 T
current i = 32 A
to find out
Calculate V
solution
we know v formula that is
V = magnitude× current / (no of charge carriers ×thickness × e
here we know that number of charge carriers/unit volume for copper = 8.47 x 10^28 electrons/m³
so put all value we get
V = magnitude× current / (no of charge carriers ×thickness × e
V = 0.78 × 32 / (8.47 x 10^28 × 190 × 1.602 x 10^(-19)
V = 9.682 × 10^(-6) V
