Answer:
a) K = 0.63 J, b) h = 0.153 m
Explanation:
a) In this exercise we have a physical pendulum since the rod is a material object, the angular velocity is
w² =
where d is the distance from the pivot point to the center of mass and I is the moment of inertia.
The rod is a homogeneous body so its center of mass is at the geometric center of the rod.
d = L / 2
the moment of inertia of the rod is the moment of a rod supported at one end
I = ⅓ m L²
we substitute
w =
w =
w =
w = 4.427 rad / s
an oscillatory system is described by the expression
θ = θ₀ cos (wt + Φ)
the angular velocity is
w = dθ /dt
w = - θ₀ w sin (wt + Ф)
In this exercise, the kinetic energy is requested in the lowest position, in this position the energy is maximum. For this expression to be maximum, the sine function must be equal to ±1
In the exercise it is indicated that at the lowest point the angular velocity is
w = 4.0 rad / s
the kinetic energy is
K = ½ I w²
K = ½ (⅓ m L²) w²
K = 1/6 m L² w²
K = 1/6 0.42 0.75² 4.0²
K = 0.63 J
b) for this part let's use conservation of energy
starting point. Lowest point
Em₀ = K = ½ I w²
final point. Highest point
Em_f = U = m g h
energy is conserved
Em₀ = Em_f
½ I w² = m g h
½ (⅓ m L²) w² = m g h
h = 1/6 L² w² / g
h = 1/6 0.75² 4.0² / 9.8
h = 0.153 m
Answer:
I'm pretty sure the answer is runoff
The fact that the layers of graphite are held together by only weak Van der Walls forces implies that they can slide over each other.
<h3>Why is graphite a solid lubricant?</h3>
We know that graphite is composed of layers. These hexagonal layers are held together by weak Van Der Walls forces and as such are able to slide over each other. The carbon atom in each layer are held together by strong covalent bonds.
The fact that the layers of graphite are held together by only weak Van der Walls forces implies that they can slide over each other and as such make the graphite fluid.
Thus, the image that shows these layers of graphite is attached to this an answer
Learn more about graphite:brainly.com/question/11095487
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Answer:
i)20369 photons
ii) 40 ps
Explanation:
Momentum of one Sodium atom:

In other to stop it, it must absorb the same momentum in photons:

Now, for the minimun time, we use the speed of light and the wavelength. For the n photons:

The equation for electrical power is<span>P=VI</span>where V is the voltage and I is the current. This can be rearranged to solve for I in 6(a).
6(b) can be solved with Ohm's Law<span>V=IR</span>or if you'd like, from power, after substituting Ohm's law in for I<span>P=<span><span>V2</span>R</span></span>
For 7, realize that because they are in parallel, their voltages are the same.
We can find the resistance of each lamp from<span>P=<span><span>V2</span>R</span></span>Then the equivalent resistance as<span><span>1<span>R∗</span></span>=<span>1<span>R1</span></span>+<span>1<span>R2</span></span></span>Then the total power as<span><span>Pt</span>=<span><span>V2</span><span>R∗</span></span></span>However, this will reveal that (with a bit of algebra)<span><span>Pt</span>=<span>P1</span>+<span>P2</span></span>
For 8, again the resistance can be found as<span>P=<span><span>V2</span>R</span></span>The energy usage is simply<span><span>E=P⋅t</span></span>