The change from 3/4 to 4/10 is found by obtaining and applying the LCD:
15/20 to 8/20 is a negative change, and the amount of the change was -7/20.
We compare this result to the original value, 15/20, to obtain the percentage change in the fraction:
-7/20
----------- = -7/15 = -0.467 => -46.7%
15/20
Option D:
15c ≤ 200
Solution:
Let c be the number of cases of tea bags.
Cost of each tea bag = 15 gold coins
Total gold coins Mad have = 200
<u>Set up an inequality:</u>
Cost of c tea bags = 15 × c = 15c
Mad can buy tea bags at most 200 gold coins.
(At most 200 means 200 is the greater value)
15 × c ≤ 200
15c ≤ 200
Hence option D is the correct answer.
I believe the percentage of this is 50%. Half the numbers are even, and half are odd. Your fraction is
Simplified, that's a 50% probability.
Answer:
The answer is True.
Step-by-step explanation:
Sales variance is computed in same manner as cost variance that is computing both price and volume variance. However interpretation of end result will not be same. For example in material price variance if
A = actual purchase price = $ 4, B = standard purchase price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity purchased = 500 units then
Material price varaince = 500 (5-4) = 500,
This gives us favourable price variance of 500 dollars. However in sales price variance if
A = actual sales price = $ 4, B = standard sale price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity sold = 500 units then
Sale price varaince = 500 (5-4) = (500)
This gives us unfavourable sales price variance of 500 dollars.
This show that formulas to compute variances are same but sale price decrease give us un favorable variance and cost price decrease gives us favorable price variance and vice versa.
