Permeability is a measure of how fast a liquid can pass
through a layer of solid. In this case, the lesser the time, the more permeable
the solid is. Or the other way around, the bigger the time, the less permeable
the solid is. Therefore the answer in this problem is:
<span> A. Soil W</span>
<h3><u>Answer;</u></h3>
C. 12 units
<h3><u>Explanation;</u></h3>
- If the strength of the magnetic field at B is 3 units, the strength of the magnetic field at A is 12 units
- Magnetic field strength is one of two ways that the intensity of a magnetic field can be expressed.
- <em><u>The strength of the field is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. This means that If the distance between two points in magnetic filed is doubled the magnetic force between them will fall to a quarter of the initial value. </u></em>
- <em><u>On the other hand, if the distance between two magnets is halved the magnetic force between them will increase to four times the initial value.</u></em>
Answer:
The acceleration of the wallet is 
Explanation:
Given that,
Radius of purse r= 2.30 m
Radius of wallet r'= 3.45 m
Acceleration of the purse 
We need to calculate the acceleration of the wallet
Using formula of acceleration

Both the purse and wallet have same angular velocity








Hence, The acceleration of the wallet is 
Answer:
a) FE = 0.764FG
b) a = 2.30 m/s^2
Explanation:
a) To compare the gravitational and electric force over the particle you calculate the following ratio:
(1)
FE: electric force
FG: gravitational force
q: charge of the particle = 1.6*10^-19 C
g: gravitational acceleration = 9.8 m/s^2
E: electric field = 103N/C
m: mass of the particle = 2.2*10^-15 g = 2.2*10^-18 kg
You replace the values of all parameters in the equation (1):

Then, the gravitational force is 0.764 times the electric force on the particle
b)
The acceleration of the particle is obtained by using the second Newton law:

you replace the values of all variables:

hence, the acceleration of the particle is 2.30m/s^2, the minus sign means that the particle moves downward.
Answer:
Kf > Ka = Kb > Kc > Kd > Ke
Explanation:
We can apply
E₀ = E₁
where
E₀: Mechanical energy at the beginning of the motion (top of the incline)
E₁: Mechanical energy at the end (bottom of the incline)
then
K₀ + U₀ = K₁ + U₁
If v₀ = 0 ⇒ K₀
and h₁ = 0 ⇒ U₁ = 0
we get
U₀ = K₁
U₀ = m*g*h₀ = K₁
we apply the same equation in each case
a) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 70 Kg*9.81 m/s²*8m = 5493.60 J
b) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 70 Kg*9.81 m/s²*8m = 5493.60 J
c) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 35 Kg*9.81 m/s²*4m = 1373.40 J
d) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 7 Kg*9.81 m/s²*16m = 1098.72 J
e) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 7 Kg*9.81 m/s²*4m = 274.68 J
f) U₀ = K₁ = m*g*h₀ = 105 Kg*9.81 m/s²*6m = 6180.30 J
finally, we can say that
Kf > Ka = Kb > Kc > Kd > Ke