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xxMikexx [17]
3 years ago
13

True or false? All waves need a medium in order to travel

Physics
2 answers:
Art [367]3 years ago
4 0
That's false.  Mechanical waves (like sound and ocean waves) do
need a medium to travel in, but electromagnetic waves (like radio
and light) don't.
Pavlova-9 [17]3 years ago
3 0
That is false because electromagnetic waves can travel without a medium.

hope this helps :)


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Two parallel plates are 1 cm apart and are connected to a 500 V source. What force will be exerted on a single electron half way
VladimirAG [237]

Answer: 8*10^-15 N

Explanation: In order to calculate the force applied on an electron in the middle of the two planes at 500 V we know that,  F=q*E

The electric field between  the plates is given by:

E = ΔV/d = 500 V/0.01 m=5*10^3 N/C

the force applied to the electron is: F=e*E=8*10^-15 N

3 0
2 years ago
What is force of gravity​
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

On Earth all bodies have a weight, or downward force of gravity, proportional to their mass, which Earth's mass exerts on them. Gravity is measured by the acceleration that it gives to freely falling objects. At Earth's surface the acceleration of gravity is about 9.8 metres (32 feet) per second per second.

5 0
3 years ago
During a circus act, an elderly performer thrills the crowd by catching a cannon ball shot at him. The cannon ball has a mass of
Ipatiy [6.2K]

Answer:

m v1 = (m + M) v2

v2 = m v1 / (m + M)

v2 = 7 * 74 / (74 + 65)

3.73 m/s

74 kg is too heavy for the cannonball (over 150 lbs)

4 0
2 years ago
Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is divided into seven ranges of wavelengths and is the part visible to the human eye
oksano4ka [1.4K]
In one of the most amazing coincidences in all of science,
the part of the electromagnetic spectrum that's visible to the
human eye is called "visible light".

Visible light is not 'divided' into anything. We mention the names
to seven of the colors in visible light. But all of the thousands of
OTHER colors that we can see are in there too, even though we
don't bother to list their names when we buzz through the rainbow
in the third grade.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John says that the value of the function cos[ω(t + T) + ϕ], obtained one period T after time t, is greater than cos(ωt + ϕ) by 2
Svetllana [295]

Answer:

No one is right

Explanation:

John Case:

The function cos(\omega t +\phi) is defined between -1 and 1, So it is not possible obtain a value 2\pi greater.  

In addition, if you  move the function cosine a T Value, and T is the Period,  the function take the same value due to the cosine is a periodic function.

Larry case:

Is you have f=1+cos(\omega t +\phi), the domain of this is [0,2].

it is equivalent to adding 1 to the domain of the f=1+cos(\omega t +\phi), and its mean that the function f=cos(\omega t +\phi), in general, is not greater than cos(\omega t +\phi).

3 0
2 years ago
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