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Minchanka [31]
3 years ago
11

A 210 Ohm resistor uses 9.28 W of

Physics
1 answer:
IgorLugansk [536]3 years ago
4 0
  • Resistance=R=210Ohm
  • Power=9.28W=P

Current=I

\boxed{\sf P=I^2R}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I^2=\dfrac{P}{R}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I^2=\dfrac{9.28}{210}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I^2\approx0.04

\\ \sf\longmapsto I\approx\sqrt{0.04}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I\approx\sqrt{\dfrac{4}{100}}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I\approx\dfrac{\sqrt{4}}{\sqrt{100}}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I\approx\dfrac{2}{10}

\\ \sf\longmapsto I\approx0.2A

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No the given statement is not necessarily true.

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For 2 particles with masses m_{1},m_{2}and moving with velocities v_{1},v_{2} respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}

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Similarly For 2 particles with masses m_{1},m_{2}and moving with velocities v_{1},v_{2} respectively the respective momenta are given by

p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}

p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

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<h3><u>Answer;</u></h3>

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