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Nitella [24]
3 years ago
8

e lifetimes of lightbulbs of a particular type are normally distributed with a mean of290 hours and astandard deviation of6 hour

s. What percentage of the bulbs have lifetimes that lie within 1 standarddeviation to either side of the mean
Mathematics
1 answer:
Tcecarenko [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

p(\overline{X}-\sigma \leq X \leq \overline{X}+\sigma)\\\\=p(\dfrac{\overline{X}-\sigma -\overline{X} }{\sigma} \leq  Z \leq \dfrac{\overline{X}+\sigma -\overline{X} }{\sigma} )\\\\=p ( -1 \leq Z \leq 1)\\\\=2*(\ p (Z \leq 1)-0.5)\\\\=2*(0.8413-0.5)\\\\=0.6826\\\\\approx{68\%}

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Linda knitted 1/6 of a sweater on Friday and 2/9 of the sweater on Saturday. On Sunday she knitted 1/2 of the remaining sweater.
sladkih [1.3K]
This is pretty simple. All you have to do is make the first and second fraction share a denominator by multiplying them by each other.

6 <span>• 9 = 54

Then multiply each numerator by the opposing denominator.

1 </span><span>• 9 = 9

2 </span><span>• 6 = 12

Here are the new fractions:

9/54

12/54

Now add the 9 and 12 together.

9 + 12 = 21

The complete fraction:

21/54

Subtract 21 from 54 so you can get the remainder of the sweater.

54 - 21 = 33

This is the remainder fraction:

33/54

Can you simplify this? Yes, of course! They can both be divided by 3!

11/18

That is the remainder of the sweater. But you still have to divide it in half! After all, Linda only knitted half of the remaining sweater. Dividing it in half can be done just by multiplying the denominator by 2.

11/36

That should be your answer! Apologies if I got something wrong.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
P is the largest prime number between 50 and 100.
Bogdan [553]

Answer: 46

Step-by-step explanation:

Largest prime number: 97

Smallest prime number: 51

97-51 = 46

8 0
3 years ago
Consider the following functions. f={(−4,−1),(1,1),(−3,−2),(−5,2)} and g={(1,1),(2,−3),(3,−1)}: Find (f−g)(1).
fenix001 [56]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtraction of functions has the property:

  • (f−g)(1) = f(1) - g(1)

f={(−4,−1),(1,1),(−3,−2),(−5,2)}  has (1,1) means that f maps 1 to 1, therefore f(1) = 1

g={(1,1),(2,−3),(3,−1)}  has (1,1), means that g maps 1 to 1, therefore g(1)=1

As a Result, since (f−g)(1) = f(1) - g(1), we have (f−g)(1) = 1-1=0

7 0
3 years ago
If line segment AB measures approximately 8.6 units and is considered the base of parallelogram ABCD, what is the approximate co
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

4.8

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
7(y + 2) – (4y – 10) = 44 – 2y + 5<br> y = -10
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

y=-8

Step-by-step explanation:

7(y + 2) – (4y – 10)

=7y+14-4y+10

=3y+24

3y=-24

y=-8

3 0
3 years ago
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