The answer is 7, your welcome :).
Interest = Pin = principal * interest rate * number of years
Let interest rate be i, then
600*i*2+150*i*4=90
1200i+600i = 90
i=90/(1200+600)=90/1800=1/20=0.05 or 5%
Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
because it sells the best price
(x + 8)(x - 6)
to factorise consider the factors of - 48 which sum to + 2
These are + 8 and - 6 thus
x² + 2x - 48 = (x + 8)(x - 6)
Factors of 4: 2 and 2
y= (x+2)²
+√y or -√y = x+2
x= 2+√y , 2-√y
interchange variables
y= 2+√x , 2-√x
f ⁻¹(x) = 2 + √x, 2 - √x