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kap26 [50]
3 years ago
5

Given the expression below, which statement is true about the

Mathematics
1 answer:
artcher [175]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

your correct answer is 3 no first ,

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Prove: If n is a positiveinteger and n2 is<br> divisible by 3, then n is divisible by3.
notka56 [123]

Answer:

If n^2 is divisible by 3, the n is also divisible by 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

We will prove this with the help of contrapositive that is we prove that if n is not divisible by 3, then, n^2 is not divisible by 3.

Let n not be divisible by 3. Then \frac{n}{3} can be written in the form of fraction \frac{x}{y}, where x and y are co-prime to each other or in other words the fraction is in lowest form.

Now, squaring

\frac{n^2}{9} = \frac{x^2}{y^2}

Thus,

n^2 = \frac{9x^2}{y^2}

\frac{n^2}{3} = \frac{3x^2}{y^2}

It can be clearly seen that the fraction \frac{3x^2}{y^2} is in lowest form.

Hence, n^2 is not divisible by 3.

Thus, by contrapositivity if n^2 is divisible by 3, the n is also divisible by 3.

5 0
4 years ago
This is the full page plz help
Scorpion4ik [409]
Angle 1 is congruent to angles 3, 5, and/or 7

Angle 2 is congruent to angles 4, 6, and/or 8

Angle 5 is congruent to angles 7, 3 and/or 1

Angle 6 is congruent to angles 8, 4, and/or 2

Any of these answers could work for the blanks.


Angles 1 and 3, 2 and 4, 5 and 7, and angles 6 and 8 are congruent because they are vertical angles. They have the same vertex. Not all of these are congruent to each other if this doesn’t make sense. It’s only 1 is congruent to 3, 2 congruent to 4, etc.

Then you have your corresponding angles. These are ones like angles 2 and 6, then 1 and 5. You can also have 8 and 4, or 7 and 3 as corresponding angles

Transversal angles are different. This would be like angles 3 and 4, or 1 and 2. They are not always congruent. The only time they will be congruent is if they are both 90°. Transversal angles are essentially supplementary angles on the transversal line (the line that intersects through the set of parallel lines)












3 0
3 years ago
The function g(x) is the inverse of the function f (x) = (x + 1)2 + 2, when x &lt; -1
kondaur [170]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  g(x) = -√(x -2) -1

Step-by-step explanation:

We note the domain of f(x) is x ≤ -1. The is the range of the function g(x).

The inverse function is the solution to ...

  x = f(y)

  x = (y +1)² +2

  x -2 = (y +1)²

  -√(x -2) = y +1 . . . . . . . we are interested only in the negative values

  y = -√(x -2) -1

The inverse function is ...

  g(x) = -√(x -2) -1

3 0
3 years ago
Rita owed her brother $15. After her birthday, she was able to pay him back and still have $45. How much money did Rita receive
kipiarov [429]

I’m stuck in the same one!!

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Julio is training for a marathon. He runs 34 miles the first week and 29 miles the next week. During the third week , he wants t
Grace [21]
34+29= 63
63/7= 9

Julio has to run 9 miles a day 
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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