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user100 [1]
3 years ago
11

You want to carpet a 15 foot by 20 foot room. You have two carpet options to choose from. One is $1.50 per square foot and the o

ther is $3.00 per square foot. How much more will your total bill be if you choose the more expensive carpet rather than the cheaper one?
a. $52.50 more.
b. $105 more.
c. $450 more.
d. more than $500 more.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Sauron [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

the answer is A because the cost of the more expensive one is 15+20=35 multiplied by 3 which will give me =$105

And the cheaper one is 15+20=35 multiplied by 1.50 = which is 52.5

so the amount more of the choice for the more expensive one is 105-52.5=52.5.

the answer is 52.50.

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Here's a subtraction problem that has been solved incorrectly.
fredd [130]

Answer:You’re answer would have to be B) 41+28=69

Because 69-28=41 and 41+ 28 = 69

5 0
3 years ago
At noon, a tank contained 5 cm of water. After several hours, it contained 4 cm of water. What is the percent decrease of water
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

2cm I think sorry If its wrong

6 0
3 years ago
Help pls I need number 4 done pls
anygoal [31]

Answer:

there is an equal amount if cars on both sides so it would be 0

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 4 cars on the left and on the right of 2 1/2 so the answer would be 0 because 4-4=0

4 0
3 years ago
a pipeline is laid at a rate of 1/8 mile per day.How many miles of line would be completed in 29 1/2 days​
Setler [38]

Answer:

In 29  1/2 days, the total pipe laid is (\frac{59}{16}) mile.

Step-by-step explanation:

The length of pipe laid in 1 day = 1/8 mile

So, the length of pipe laid in half day = half of (1/8 mile)

= \frac{1}{2}  \times \frac{1}{8}  = \frac{1}{16}  \textrm{mile}

Now, 29 1/2 days on simplification means 29 and half day.

So, length of pipe in 29 days = 29 \times \frac{1}{8}  = \frac{29}{8} mile

Now adding the length laid in half day = \frac{29}{8}  + \frac{1}{16}  = \frac{29 (2) + 1}{16}  = \frac{59}{16}  \textrm{mile}

So, in 29  1/2 days, the total pipe laid is (\frac{59}{16}) mile.

8 0
4 years ago
According to the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, approximately 7% of U.S. children 4 years of age or youn
Yuliya22 [10]

Answer:

0.337 = 33.7% probability that one of the eight children has a food allergy.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each children, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have a food allergy, or they do not. The probability of a child having food allergy is independent of any other child. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

7% of U.S. children 4 years of age or younger have a food allergy.

This means that p = 0.07

A day care program has capacity for 8 children in that age range.

This means that n = 8

What is the probability that one of the eight children has a food allergy?

This is P(X = 1).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{8,1}.(0.07)^{1}.(0.93)^{7} = 0.337

0.337 = 33.7% probability that one of the eight children has a food allergy.

6 0
3 years ago
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