What are vertical angles always equal to
1 answer:
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Answer:
Please refer to the attached graph for the graph of linear inequality:
Step-by-step explanation:
Method to draw graph of inequality:
<u>1. First of all replace the inequality sign with equality.</u>
Now the equation is:
Now, find point and plot them.
Let us put x = 0, we get y = -1. So one point is <em>(0, -1)</em>
Let us put y = 0, we get x = 2. So one point is <em>(2,0)</em>
Now, plot both the point and join with straight line on xy coordinate axis.
2. Now, try to find a random point and put in the inequality.
If the point satisfies the inequality shade the region moving from the line towards that point.
For example:
Taking a point (4, 2)
Putting in the inequality:
So, (4, 2) satisfies the inequality.
Now, shade the region moving from the line towards the point (4,2).
We get the shaded region as shown in the attached figure in the answer area.
Answer:
x ≈ 3.1 ft
Step-by-step explanation:
The segment from the centre to the chord is a perpendicular bisector, thus
The triangle is right with base = x
Applying Pythagoras' identity to the right triangle, then
( x )² + 1.4² = 2.1²
x² + 1.96 = 4.41 ( subtract 1.96 from both sides )
x² = 2.45 ( multiply both sides by 4 )
x² = 9.8 ( take the square root of both sides )
x = ≈ 3.1 ft ( to the nearest tenth )