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iris [78.8K]
3 years ago
5

Area under the curve velocity vs time graph gives us what?

Physics
1 answer:
emmainna [20.7K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The area under a velocity-time graph is the displacement. Velocity can be negative if an object is moving backwards. The displacement can also be negative. An area beneath the x-axis has a negative value.

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Coulomb’s law and static point charge ensembles (15 points). A test charge of 2C is located at point (3, 3, 5) in Cartesian coor
fenix001 [56]

Answer:

a) F_{r}= -583.72MN i + 183.47MN j + 6.05GN k

b) E=3.04 \frac{GN}{C}

Step-by-step explanation.

In order to solve this problem, we mus start by plotting the given points and charges. That will help us visualize the problem better and determine the direction of the forces (see attached picture).

Once we drew the points, we can start calculating the forces:

r_{AP}^{2}=(3-0)^{2}+(3-0)^{2}+(5+0)^{2}

which yields:

r_{AP}^{2}= 43 m^{2}

(I will assume the positions are in meters)

Next, we can make use of the force formula:

F=k_{e}\frac{q_{1}q_{2}}{r^{2}}

so we substitute the values:

F_{AP}=(8.99x10^{9})\frac{(1C)(2C)}{43m^{2}}

which yields:

F_{AP}=418.14 MN

Now we can find its components:

F_{APx}=418.14 MN*\frac{3}{\sqrt{43}}i

F_{APx}=191.30 MNi

F_{APy}=418.14 MN*\frac{3}{\sqrt{43}}j

F_{APy}=191.30MN j

F_{APz}=418.14 MN*\frac{5}{\sqrt{43}}k

F_{APz}=318.83 MN k

And we can now write them together for the first force, so we get:

F_{AP}=(191.30i+191.30j+318.83k)MN

We continue with the next force. The procedure is the same so we get:

r_{BP}^{2}=(3-1)^{2}+(3-1)^{2}+(5+0)^{2}

which yields:

r_{BP}^{2}= 33 m^{2}

Next, we can make use of the force formula:

F_{BP}=(8.99x10^{9})\frac{(4C)(2C)}{33m^{2}}

which yields:

F_{BP}=2.18 GN

Now we can find its components:

F_{BPx}=2.18 GN*\frac{2}{\sqrt{33}}i

F_{BPx}=758.98 MNi

F_{BPy}=2.18 GN*\frac{2}{\sqrt{33}}j

F_{BPy}=758.98MN j

F_{BPz}=2.18 GN*\frac{5}{\sqrt{33}}k

F_{BPz}=1.897 GN k

And we can now write them together for the second, so we get:

F_{BP}=(758.98i + 758.98j + 1897k)MN

We continue with the next force. The procedure is the same so we get:

r_{CP}^{2}=(3-5)^{2}+(3-4)^{2}+(5-0)^{2}

which yields:

r_{CP}^{2}= 30 m^{2}

Next, we can make use of the force formula:

F_{CP}=(8.99x10^{9})\frac{(7C)(2C)}{30m^{2}}

which yields:

F_{CP}=4.20 GN

Now we can find its components:

F_{CPx}=4.20 GN*\frac{-2}{\sqrt{30}}i

F_{CPx}=-1.534 GNi

F_{CPy}=4.20 GN*\frac{2}{\sqrt{30}}j

F_{CPy}=-766.81 MN j

F_{CPz}=4.20 GN*\frac{5}{\sqrt{30}}k

F_{CPz}=3.83 GN k

And we can now write them together for the third force, so we get:

F_{CP}=(-1.534i - 0.76681j +3.83k)GN

So in order to find the resultant force, we need to add the forces together:

F_{r}=F_{AP}+F_{BP}+F_{CP}

so we get:

F_{r}=(191.30i+191.30j+318.83k)MN + (758.98i + 758.98j + 1897k)MN + (-1.534i - 0.76681j +3.83k)GN

So when adding the problem together we get that:

F_{r}=(-0.583.72i + 0.18347j +6.05k)GN

which is the answer to part a), now let's take a look at part b).

b)

Basically, we need to find the magnitude of the force and divide it into the test charge, so we get:

F_{r}=\sqrt{(-0.583.72)^{2} + (0.18347)^{2} +(6.05)^{2}}

which yields:

F_{r}=6.08 GN

and now we take the formula for the electric field which is:

E=\frac{F_{r}}{q}

so we go ahead and substitute:

E=\frac{6.08GN}{2C}

E=3.04\frac{GN}{C}

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If a wave has a frequency of 2 HZ what would it be in seconds?
gavmur [86]

Frequency is not a length of time.  It's exactly the opposite.
Frequency tells you how often something happens.  In fact,
the unit 'Hz' means 'per second'.

   Frequency of 2 Hz means "It happens at 2 per second."

The time it takes for the thing to happen once is exactly the
'reciprocal' of the frequency ... ' 1 ' divided by the frequency.

If the frequency is  2 Hz, then the thing happens every 1/2 second.

If the frequency is 74 Hz, then it happens every  1/74 of a second.

If the frequency is 1 KiloHz, then it happens every  1/1000 second.

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Find the current flowing across the 20 ohm resistor.​
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15 is it

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