Answer:
I think it's D but I am not sure.
Answer:
x = π/3, x = 5π/3, x = 4π/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's split the given equation (2cosx-1)(2sinx+√3 ) = 0 into two parts, and solve each separately. These parts would be 2cos(x) - 1 = 0, and 2sin(x) + √3 = 0.

Remember that the general solutions for cos(x) = 1/2 are x = π/3 + 2πn and x = 5π/3 + 2πn. In this case we are given the interval 0 ≤ x ≤2π, and therefore x = π/3, and x = 5π/3.
Similarly:

The general solutions for sin(x) = - √3/2 are x = 4π/3 + 2πn and x = 5π/3 + 2πn. Therefore x = 4π/3 and x = 5π/3 in this case.
So we have x = π/3, x = 5π/3, and x = 4π/3 as our solutions.
Answer:
There is no x in the equation, bu the equation you posted equals 20.
Step-by-step explanation:
22+3−5
25-5=20
Answer:
Lease value
Step-by-step explanation:
The lease value may bed defined as an open market capital valuation of the parts of the subject or the subject that are to be leased in regards of the terms of the lease.
In the context, Lakiesha drives a company car whose value is $ 7,750 according to 15-b publication. The car was available for 200 days in a year. She drove the car for 4500 miles for her personal use and 21250 miles in total. The fuel is paid by the employer. So here the best method that will yield the lowest fringe benefit amount for her is the lease value method.