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Katyanochek1 [597]
3 years ago
7

Help due today NO FILES NO LINKS

Mathematics
2 answers:
Mashcka [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The graph that is in the bottom left corner.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps:)

Oxana [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The third graph

Step-by-step explanation:

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20% tip on a<br> $30 haircut.
denis23 [38]

the tip is 15$ im pretty sure

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3 years ago
Mary saw a bottle of shampoo that cost $7.75 and a bottle of conditioner that cost $5.90.
Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

$1.85

Step-by-step explanation:

$7.75 is $1.85 greater then $5.90

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose n people, n ≥ 3, play "odd person out" to decide who will buy the next round of refreshments. The n people each flip a f
blondinia [14]

Answer:

Assume that all the coins involved here are fair coins.

a) Probability of finding the "odd" person in one round: \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}.

b) Probability of finding the "odd" person in the kth round: \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} \cdot \left( 1 - n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}\right)^{k - 1}.

c) Expected number of rounds: \displaystyle \frac{2^{n - 1}}{n}.

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>a)</h3>

To decide the "odd" person, either of the following must happen:

  • There are (n - 1) heads and 1 tail, or
  • There are 1 head and (n - 1) tails.

Assume that the coins here all are all fair. In other words, each has a 50\,\% chance of landing on the head and a

The binomial distribution can model the outcome of n coin-tosses. The chance of getting x heads out of

  • The chance of getting (n - 1) heads (and consequently, 1 tail) would be \displaystyle {n \choose n - 1}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - (n - 1)} = n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n.
  • The chance of getting 1 heads (and consequently, (n - 1) tails) would be \displaystyle {n \choose 1}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{1} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} = n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n.

These two events are mutually-exclusive. \displaystyle n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n + n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n  = 2\,n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} would be the chance that either of them will occur. That's the same as the chance of determining the "odd" person in one round.

<h3>b)</h3>

Since the coins here are all fair, the chance of determining the "odd" person would be \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} in all rounds.

When the chance p of getting a success in each round is the same, the geometric distribution would give the probability of getting the first success (that is, to find the "odd" person) in the kth round: (1 - p)^{k - 1} \cdot p. That's the same as the probability of getting one success after (k - 1) unsuccessful attempts.

In this case, \displaystyle p = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}. Therefore, the probability of succeeding on round k round would be

\displaystyle \underbrace{\left(1 - n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}\right)^{k - 1}}_{(1 - p)^{k - 1}} \cdot \underbrace{n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}}_{p}.

<h3>c)</h3>

Let p is the chance of success on each round in a geometric distribution. The expected value of that distribution would be \displaystyle \frac{1}{p}.

In this case, since \displaystyle p = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}, the expected value would be \displaystyle \frac{1}{p} = \frac{1}{\displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}}= \frac{2^{n - 1}}{n}.

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3 years ago
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MatroZZZ [7]
BT=TD
BD=2*8=16
AB=BD
AB=16
5 0
3 years ago
Melanie plays softball and is hitting 30% of the balls pitched to her. If she has hit the ball 39 times, about how many times ha
arsen [322]
P(30/100)=39  multiply both sides by 100

30p=3900  divide both sides by 30

p=130

So she has faced 130 pitches.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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