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Tanya [424]
2 years ago
12

If you travel 450 meters in 40 seconds, what is your average speed in meters per

Physics
1 answer:
lianna [129]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D

Explanation:40*11.25=450

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A 2 kg ball of putty moving to the right at 3 m/s has a perfectly inelastic, head-on collision with a 1 kg ball of putty moving
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Answer:

V=1.33m/s   to the right

Explanation:

The balls collide in a completely inelastic collision, in other words they have the same velocity after the collision, this velocity has a magnitude V.

We need to use the conservation of momentum Law, the total momentum is the same before and after the collision.

In the axis X:

m_{1}*v_{o1}-m_{2}*v_{o2}=(m_{1}+m_{2})V     (1)

V=(m_{1}*v_{o1}-m_{2}*v_{o2})/(m_{1}+m_{2})=(2*3-1*2)/(2+1)=1.33m/s

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A plane electromagnetic wave, with wavelength 4.1 m, travels in vacuum in the positive direction of an x axis. The electric fiel
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(a) 7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz

The frequency of an electromagnetic waves is given by:

f=\frac{c}{\lambda}

where

c=3.0\cdot 10^8 m/s is the speed of light

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Substituting into the equation, we find

f=\frac{3.0\cdot 10^8 m/s}{4.1 m}=7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz

(b) 4.60\cdot 10^8 rad/s

The angular frequency of a wave is given by

\omega = 2\pi f

where

f is the frequency

For this wave,

f=7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz

So the angular frequency is

\omega=2\pi(7.32\cdot 10^7 Hz)=4.60\cdot 10^8 rad/s

(c) 1.53 m^{-1}

The angular wave number of a wave is given by

k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}

where

\lambda is the wavelength of the wave

For this wave, we have

\lambda=4.1 m

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k=\frac{2\pi}{4.1 m}=1.53 m^{-1}

(d) 1.03\cdot 10^{-6}T

For an electromagnetic wave,

E=cB

where

E is the magnitude of the electric field component

c is the speed of light

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field component

For this wave,

E = 310 V/m

So we can re-arrange the equation to find B:

B=\frac{E}{c}=\frac{310 V/m}{3\cdot 10^8 m/s}=1.03\cdot 10^{-6}T

(e) z-axis

In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field and the magnetic field oscillate perpendicular to each other, and they both oscillate perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. Therefore, we have:

- direction of propagation of the wave --> positive x axis

- direction of oscillation of electric field --> y axis

- direction of oscillation of magnetic field --> perpendicular to both, so it must be z-axis

(f) 127.5 W/m^2

The time-averaged rate of energy flow of an electromagnetic wave is given by:

I=\frac{E^2}{2\mu_0 c}

where we have

E = 310 V/m is the amplitude of the electric field

\mu_0 is the vacuum permeability

c is the speed of light

Substituting into the formula,

I=\frac{(310 V/m)^2}{2(4\pi\cdot 10^{-7} H/m) (3\cdot 10^8 m/s)}=127.5 W/m^2

(g) 1.53\cdot 10^{-8} kg m/s

For a surface that totally absorbs the wave, the rate at which momentum is transferred to the surface given by

\frac{dp}{dt}=\frac{A}{c}

where the <S> is the magnitude of the Poynting vector, given by

=\frac{EB}{\mu_0}=\frac{(310 V/m)(1.03\cdot 10^{-6} T)}{4\pi \cdot 10^{-7}H/m}=254.2 W/m^2

and where the surface is

A = 1.8 m^2

Substituting, we find

\frac{dp}{dt}=\frac{(254.2 W/m^2)(1.8 m^2)}{3\cdot 10^8 m/s}=1.53\cdot 10^{-8} kg m/s

(h) 8.47\cdot 10^{-7} N/m^2

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p=\frac{}{c}

where we have

=254.2 W/m^2

c=3\cdot 10^8 m/s

Substituting, we find

p=\frac{254.2 W/m^2}{3\cdot 10^8 m/s}=8.47\cdot 10^{-7} N/m^2

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