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vodomira [7]
3 years ago
10

What is an algebraic expression for "40 more than b?

Mathematics
2 answers:
____ [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

40 + b

Step-by-step explanation:

40 more than b = 40 + b

tankabanditka [31]3 years ago
3 0
The answer is x=40+b

brainliest?
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Jon overdrew his checking account and now has a balance of –$75. How much money does Jon need to deposit in his account to break
adell [148]
Cause it’s -$75 he would have to put $75 to achieve a balance of $0
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Center for Medicare and Medical Services reported that there were 295,000 appeals for hospitalization and other Part A Medic
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

(a) 0.00605

(b) 0.0403

(c) 0.9536

(d) 0.98809

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that 40% of first-round appeals were successful (The Wall Street Journal, October 22, 2012) and suppose ten first-round appeals have just been received by a Medicare appeals office.

This situation can be represented through Binomial distribution as;

P(X=r)= \binom{n}{r}p^{r}(1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,....

where,  n = number of trials (samples) taken = 10

            r = number of success

            p = probability of success which in our question is % of first-round

                   appeals that were successful, i.e.; 40%

So, here X ~ Binom(n=10,p=0.40)

(a) Probability that none of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 0)

     P(X = 0) = \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0}

                   = 1*0.6^{10} = 0.00605

(b) Probability that exactly one of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 1)

     P(X = 1) = \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                  = 10*0.4^{1} *0.6^{10-1} = 0.0403

(c) Probability that at least two of the appeals will be successful = P(X>=2)

    P(X >= 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

                     = 1 - \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0} - \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                     = 1 - 0.00605 - 0.0403 = 0.9536

(d) Probability that more than half of the appeals will be successful =             P(X > 0.5)

  For this probability we will convert our distribution into normal such that;

   X ~ N(\mu = n*p=4,\sigma^{2}= n*p*q = 2.4)

  and standard normal z has distribution as;

      Z = \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} ~ N(0,1)

  P(X > 0.5) = P( \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} > \frac{0.5-4}{\sqrt{2.4} } ) = P(Z > -2.26) = P(Z < 2.26) = 0.98809

3 0
3 years ago
A rectangular picture is 2.5 inches wide and 4 inches long. If the picture is enlarged so that it is 10 inches long, what is the
Andrej [43]
10/2.5=4 So, we should multiply it by 4
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6 0
2 years ago
Can someone please help?
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

Try working from Right to left

Step-by-step explanation:

That way the exponits will work out.

6 0
3 years ago
All of the following are equivalent except...
Pie

Answer:

d) 11x^2 because that would be the same as 11x * 11x

6 0
2 years ago
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