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makkiz [27]
3 years ago
10

HELP I WILL GIVE 85 points if u help

Mathematics
1 answer:
nata0808 [166]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. After two minutes, a bear can manage to have 120 heartbeats.

B. The slope of blue line is 60/1.

C. The slope of red line is 12/1

D. The equation for blue line is y = 60/1x

E. The equation for red line is y = 12/1x

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Can you do this 3(2x-6)-7x+4?
Serjik [45]
3(2x-6)-7x+4
3*2x=6x. 3*-6=-18
-7x+6x=-1x. -18+4=-14
-1x/-1=x. -14/-1=14
X=14
7 0
3 years ago
Ali has 40 red buttons, 60 green buttons, and 5 blue buttons
mash [69]

Ali must wear a totally ginormous shirt !

4 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
I dont understand what to do and what the answer is
hodyreva [135]

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

slope=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)=(2-4)/(0+2)=-2/2=-1

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Solve the following problems a.2ft5in+9inches=, b. 4yd8in+6yd6in=​
Luda [366]

Answer:

a. 38

b. 374

Step-by-step explanation:

a. 2 ft = 24 in + 5 in+ 9 in = 38 in

b. 4 yd = 144 + 6 yd = 216

144 + 216 + 8 + 6 = 374

Hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
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