All categories

3 years ago

If

Mathematics

1 answer:

alexira [117]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

f(x) = -1/2x + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that f(x) = y

f(-2) = 2 tells you that when x = -2, y = 2 ; So you have point (-2, 2)

f(2) = 0 tells you that when x = 2, y = 0 ; So you have point (2, 0)

Now use the two points to find the slope: Slope = (change in y)/(change in x)

So slope = (0-2)/(2-(-2) = -2/4 = -1/2

Next find "b" using the slope and one point and solve for "b"

y = mx + b slope = -1/2 point (-2, 2)

2 = -1/2(-2) + b

2 = 1 + b

1 = b

Last thing to do: write the equation using slope = -1/2 and b = 1 into y = mx + b

y = -1/2x + 1

You might be interested in

For a group of 100 people, compute(a) the expected number of days of the year that are birthdays of exactly 3 people.(b) the exp

Scilla [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Leaving leap years, a year contains 365 days.

For a group of 100 people, each person is independent of the other and probability of any day being his birthday has a chance of

$\frac{1}{365}$

a) Probability that exactly 3 people have same birthday = $\frac{1}{365^3}$

Each day is independent of the other

And hence no of days having exactly 3 persons birthday out of 100 persons is binomial with n = 365 and p = $\frac{1}{365^3}$

Expected value of days = np = $\frac{1}{365^2}$

b) Distinct birthdays is binomail with p =1/365 and n = 365

Hence

expected value = np =1

4 0

4 years ago

The diagram shows 3/4 of a fraction strip shaded. Mary erases some of the shadings to show 5/8. Explain the steps she took to sh

lakkis [162]

Answer:

a 8 parts b 8 3|4 = 3×2|4×2=b|8

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

2 years ago

What is the value of a good credit report to a borrower? A. A good credit report allows the borrower to spend as much as they wa

Alecsey [184]

I think all of the above apply

5 0

3 years ago

If you only have a

cestrela7 [59]

Hi! I'm happy to help!

To solve this problem, we need to divide the recipe amount in 1/6 amounts. So, we will do a fraction division problem like this:

15 $\frac{1}{6}$ ÷ $\frac{1}{6}$

This problem is hard to do with mixed numbers, so we need to turn 15 $\frac{1}{6}$ into an improper fraction. To do that we need to multiply 15 by 6, because that is our denominator, then add the extra $\frac{1}{6}$ .

(15×6)+1

90+1

So, our improper fraction would be $\frac{91}{6}$ , now, let's solve.

$\frac{91}{6}$ ÷ $\frac{1}{6}$

It is difficult to do division problems on their own, so we can change this into an easier problem. We can do the inverse operation and turn this into multiplication. We do this by changing it to multiplication (obviously), then flip the second fraction.

$\frac{91}{6}$ × $\frac{6}{1}$