3 years ago

The inverse of Fx) is a function. True or False

Mathematics

2 answers:

olga2289 [7]3 years ago

8 0

It is true because it passes the horizontal line test

pickupchik [31]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

The answer would be true

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there is only one y for every value of x and only one x for every value of y, both this graph and it's inverse would both be functions.

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Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$17. (a^{m})^{n}=a^{m*n}\\\\a^{m}*a^{n}=a^{m+n}\\\\-3k^{2}*(4k^{5})^{3}=-3k^{2}*4^{3}*k^{5*3}\\\\ = -3k^{2}*64*k^{15}\\\\= (-3)*64*k^{2+15}\\\\= - 192k^{17}$

$19. \dfrac{a^{m}}{a^{n}}=a^{m-n}\\\\\\\dfrac{(-7p^{4})*(-8p^{5})}{2p^{3}}= \dfrac{(-7)*(-8)*p^{4}*p^{5}}{2p^{3}}\\\\\\=(-7)*(-4)*p^{4+5-3} \\\\= 28p^{6}\\$

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