Given f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions. If f(-2)=1 then g(1)=-2 True False

Mathematics

2 answers:

Citrus2011 [14]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

True ................

PilotLPTM [1.2K]3 years ago

3 0

True.

The y-axis of the f(x) must equal to the x-axis of g(x)

The x-axis of the f(x) must equal to the y-axis of g(x)

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