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3 years ago

If a body is moving with a constant velocity then it has ................. acceleration

Physics

2 answers:

MakcuM [25]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

accelerates

Explanation:

tell more please

Stels [109]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

If a body is moving with a constant velocity then it has zero acceleration.

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Nitrogen (Z = 7) has three electrons in the 2p level (in addition to two electrons each in the 1s and 2s levels).

solmaris [256]

Based on electrons would be answer b.

8 0

4 years ago

Mr. White claims that he invented a heat engine with a maximum efficiency of 90%. He measured the temperature of the hot reservo

Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

The error he made was that he didn't convert the unit of temperature to Kelvin.

The correct efficiency is 24%

Explanation:

Parameters given:

Temperature of hot reservoir = 100°C = 373 K

Temperature of cold reservoir = 10°C = 273 K

The efficiency of a heat engine is given as:

E = 1 - (Qc/Qh) = 1 - (Tc/Th)

Where

Qc = Output heat;

Qh = Input heat;

Tc = Temperature of the cold reservoir;

Th = Temperature of the hot reservoir.

=> E = 1 - (283/373)

E = 1 - 0.76

E = 0.24

In percentage,

E = 0.24 * 100 = 24%

Hence, the efficiency of the engine is actually 24%.

The error he made was that he didn't convert the temperature to Kelvin. If we leave the temperatures in °C, we have that:

E = 1 - (10/100)

E = 1 - 0.1 = 0.9

In percentage,

E = 0.9 * 100 = 90%

7 0

3 years ago

You are fixing a transformer for a toy truck that uses an 8.0-V emf to run it. The primary coil of the transformer is broken; th

Art [367]

Answer:

a. The primary turns is 60 turns

b. The secondary voltage will be 360 volts.

Explanation:

Given data

secondary turns N2= 40 turns

primary turns N1= ?

primary voltage V1= 120 volts

secondary voltage V2= 8 volts

Applying the transformer formula which is

$\frac{N1}{N2} =\frac{V1}{V2}$

we can solve for N1 by substituting into the equation above

$\frac{N1}{40} =\frac{120}{8} \\\ N1= \frac{40*120}{8} \\\ N1= \frac{4800}{8} \\\ N1= 60$

the primary turns is 60 turns

If the primary voltage is V1 240 volts hence the secondary voltage V2 will be (to get the voltage of the secondary coil using emf substitute the values of the previously gotten N1 and N2 using V1 as 240 volts)

$\frac{40}{60} =\frac{240}{V2}\\\\V2= \frac{60*240}{40} \\\\V2=\frac{ 14400}{40} \\\\V2= 360$

the secondary voltage will be 360 volts.

6 0

3 years ago

AlekseyPX

I believe it’s tackling but I’m not quite sure

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A sphere of mass m" = 2 kg travels with a velocity of magnitude υ") = 8 m/s toward a sphere of mass m- = 3 kg initially at rest,

aleksklad [387]

a) 6.4 m/s

b) 2.1 m

c) $61.6^{\circ}$

d) 14.0 N

e) 4.6 m/s

f) 37.9 N

Explanation:

Since the system is isolated (no external forces on it), the total momentum of the system is conserved, so we can write:

$p_i = p_f\\m_1 u_1 = m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2$

where:

$m_1 = 2 kg$ is the mass of the 1st sphere

$m_2 = 3kg$ is the mass of the 2nd sphere

$u_1 = 8 m/s$ is the initial velocity of the 1st sphere

$v_1$ is the final velocity of the 1st sphere

$v_2$ is the final velocity of the 2nd sphere

Since the collision is elastic, the total kinetic energy is also conserved:

$E_i=E_k\\\frac{1}{2}m_1 u_1^2 = \frac{1}{2}m_1 v_1^2 + \frac{1}{2}m_2 v_2^2$

Combining the two equations together, we can find the final velocity of the 2nd sphere:

$v_2=\frac{2m_1}{m_1+m_2}u_1=\frac{2(2)}{2+3}(8)=6.4 m/s$

Now we analyze the 2nd sphere from the moment it starts its motion till the moment it reaches the maximum height.

Since its total mechanical energy is conserved, its initial kinetic energy is entirely converted into gravitational potential energy at the highest point.

So we can write:

$KE_i = PE_f$

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh$

where

m = 3 kg is the mass of the sphere

v = 6.4 m/s is the initial speed of the sphere

$g=9.8 m/s^2$ is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the maximum height reached

Solving for h, we find

$h=\frac{v^2}{2g}=\frac{(6.4)^2}{2(9.8)}=2.1 m$

Here the 2nd sphere is tied to a rope of length

L = 4 m

We know that the maximum height reached by the sphere in its motion is

h = 2.1 m

Calling $\theta$ the angle that the rope makes with the vertical, we can write

$h = L-Lcos \theta$

Which can be rewritten as

$h=L(1-cos \theta)$

Solving for $\theta$ , we can find the angle between the rope and the vertical:

$cos \theta = 1-\frac{h}{L}=1-\frac{2.1}{4}=0.475\\\theta=cos^{-1}(0.475)=61.6^{\circ}$

The motion of the sphere is part of a circular motion. The forces acting along the centripetal direction are:

- The tension in the rope, T, inward

- The component of the weight along the radial direction, $mg cos \theta$ , outward

Their resultant must be equal to the centripetal force, so we can write:

$T-mg cos \theta = m\frac{v^2}{r}$

where r = L (the radius of the circle is the length of the rope).

However, when the sphere is at the highest point, it is at rest, so

v = 0

Therefore we have

$T-mg cos \theta=0$

So we can find the tension:

$T=mg cos \theta=(3)(9.8)(cos 61.6^{\circ})=14.0 N$

We can solve this part by applying again the law of conservation of energy.

In fact, when the sphere is at a height of h = 1 m, it has both kinetic and potential energy. So we can write:

$KE_i = KE_f + PE_f\\\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv'^2 + mgh'$

where:

$KE_i$ is the initial kinetic energy

$KE_f$ is the kinetic energy at 1 m

$PE_f$ is the final potential energy

v = 6.4 m/s is the speed at the bottom

v' is the speed at a height of 1 m

h' = 1 m is the height

m = 3 kg is the mass of the sphere

And solving for v', we find:

$v'=\sqrt{v^2-2gh'}=\sqrt{6.4^2-2(9.8)(1)}=4.6 m/s$

Again, since the sphere is in circular motion, the equation of the forces along the radial direction is

$T-mg cos \theta = m\frac{v^2}{r}$

where

T is the tension in the string

$mg cos \theta$ is the component of the weight in the radial direction

$m\frac{v^2}{r}$ is the centripetal force

In this situation we have

v = 4.6 m/s is the speed of the sphere

$cos \theta$ can be rewritten as (see part c)

$cos \theta = 1-\frac{h'}{L}$

where in this case,

h' = 1 m

L = 4 m

And $r=L=4 m$ is the radius of the circle

Substituting and solving for T, we find:

$T=mg cos \theta + m\frac{v^2}{r}=mg(1-\frac{h'}{L})+m\frac{v^2}{L}=\\=(3)(9.8)(1-\frac{1}{4})+(3)\frac{4.6^2}{4}=37.9 N$

4 0

3 years ago