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olga2289 [7]
2 years ago
14

Simplify the expression. Write your answer as an improper fraction. -2/3x divided by (-4/9)

Mathematics
1 answer:
son4ous [18]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

3/2x

Step-by-step explanation:

−

2

3

x

−

4

9

=

3

2

x

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3<br>Which of these is equivalent to 4<br>81 <br>64 <br>44 <br>12​
jek_recluse [69]
The answer is 44. ! Your welcome
8 0
3 years ago
There is a bag filled with 5 blue and 6 red marbles.
Afina-wow [57]

Answer:

The probability of getting two of the same color is 61/121 or about 50.41%.

Step-by-step explanation:

The bag is filled with five blue marbles and six red marbles.

And we want to find the probability of getting two of the same color.

If we're getting two of the same color, this means that we are either getting Red - Red or Blue - Blue.

In other words, we can find the independent probability of each case and add the probabilities together*.

The probability of getting a red marble first is:

\displaystyle P\left(\text{Red}\right)=\frac{6}{11}

Since the marble is replaced, the probability of getting another red is: \displaystyle P\left(\text{Red, Red}\right)=\frac{6}{11}\cdot \frac{6}{11}=\frac{36}{121}

The probability of getting a blue marble first is:

\displaystyle P\left(\text{Blue}\right)=\frac{5}{11}

And the probability of getting another blue is:

\displaystyle P\left(\text{Blue, Blue}\right)=\frac{5}{11}\cdot \frac{5}{11}=\frac{25}{121}

So, the probability of getting two of the same color is:

\displaystyle P(\text{Same})=\frac{36}{121}+\frac{25}{121}=\frac{61}{121}\approx50.41\%

*Note:

We can only add the probabilities together because the event is mutually exclusive. That is, a red marble is a red marble and a blue marble is a blue marble: a marble cannot be both red and blue simultaneously.

4 0
3 years ago
Plz help me with 30 a and b
Verdich [7]
A. Y=-0.2X+6.1.
B. It's wanting an X and Y table I guess. So week zero is 6.1. Week one is 5.9. Two is 5.7. Three is 5.5. Four is 5.3. Five is 5.1. Hope that's far enough.
8 0
3 years ago
Converting mixed numbers to impoper fractions
Oduvanchick [21]
To convert a mixed number to an improper, first, multiply the denominator of the fraction and the whole number of the fraction. Then, add the numerator to the product of the denominator and the whole number.
For example, 3 1/4. Multiply the 3 and 4 to get 12. Then add the one and you get 13. Lastly, take your sum (13 in this case) and put it over the original denominator (4) Your answer is 13/4. Hope that helps :)
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The answer key says the answer is B, but I don't understand how it is decreasing...isn't the velocity shown to be increasing? An
german

Answer:

Acceleration and velocity are two different things.  The acceleration is the rate at which the velocity is increasing.  So while the velocity very well may be increasing, the rate (acceleration) at which it is, is decreasing.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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