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1 year ago

PLZ HELP ME WITH THIS QUESTION! NO LINKS!!will give 5 stars and brainliest

Physics

2 answers:

Rufina [12.5K]1 year ago

8 0

Answer:

It is four

Explanation:

You don't need any work to be done, you just kinda slide it off your arms and it could possibly be 5 bcs the backpack falls itself due to the laws of gravity but you do need to throw it

ohaa [14]1 year ago

3 0

The answer is: Option 4

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As part of an interview for a summer job with the Coast Guard, you are asked to help determine the search area for two sunken sh

MrMuchimi

Answer: $37^{\circ}$ North of west

Explanation:

Given

40,000-ton luxury line traveling 20 knots towards west and

60,000 ton freighter traveling towards North with 10 knots

suppose v is the common velocity after collision

conserving momentum in west direction

$20\times 40,000=(20,000+60,000)v\cos \theta$

suppose the final velocity makes \theta angle with x axis

$v\cos \theta =10----1$

Conserving Momentum in North direction

$10\times 60,000=80,000\times v\sin\theta$

$v\sin \theta =\frac{15}{2}----2$

divide 1 and 2

$\tan \theta =\frac{3}{4}$

$\theta =37^{\circ}$

so search in the area $37^{\circ}$ North of west to find the ship

3 0

2 years ago

The value of 1.0004 to the power 1 by 2 using Binomial approximation is

IgorLugansk [536]

Given:

The given value is $(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}$ .

To find:

The value of the given expression by using the Binomial approximation.

Explanation:

We have,

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

It can be written as:

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=(1+0.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}$

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.0004$ $[\because (1+x)^n=1+nx]$

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+0.0002$

$(1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1.0002$

Therefore, the approximate value of the given expression is 1.0002.

3 0

2 years ago

PLZ HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

12.7m/s

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Mass of the diver = 77kg

Height = 8.18m

Unknown:

Final velocity = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem, we use one of the motion equations.

v² = u² + 2gh

v is the final velocity

u is the initial velocity

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height

v² = 0² + (2 x 9.8 x 8.18)

v² = 160.3

v = 12.7m/s

7 0

2 years ago

How to express whole numbers in scientific notation?

SCORPION-xisa [38]

Answer:

To write a number in scientific notation. First write a decimal point in the numbers so that there's only one digit to the left of the decimal point.

5 0

3 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

3 years ago

PLZ HELP ME WITH THIS QUESTION! NO LINKS!!will give 5 stars and brainliest ​

PLZ HELP ME WITH THIS QUESTION! NO LINKS!!will give 5 stars and brainliest