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Stels [109]
2 years ago
7

With an initial velocity of 20km per hour a car accelerated at 8m/s2 for 10s,what is the position of the car at the end of 10s

Physics
1 answer:
Dima020 [189]2 years ago
4 0
  • initial velocity=u=20km/h=5.5m/s
  • Acceleration=a=8m/s^2
  • Time=t=10s

\\ \sf\longmapsto s=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}at^2

\\ \sf\longmapsto s=5.5(10)+\dfrac{1}{2}(8)(5.5)^2

\\ \sf\longmapsto s=55+4(5.5)^2

\\ \sf\longmapsto s=55+4(30.25)

\\ \sf\longmapsto s=55+121

\\ \sf\longmapsto s=176m

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An automobile traveling 95 km/h overtakes a 1.30-km-long train traveling in the same direction on a track parallel to the road.
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Answer:

Same direction: t=234s; d=6.175Km

Opposite direction: t=27.53s; d=0.73Km

Explanation:

If the automobile and the train are traveling in the same direction, then the automobile speed relative to the train will be v_{AT}=v_A-v_T (<em>the train must see the car advancing at a lower speed</em>), where v_A is the speed of the automobile and v_T the speed of the train.

So we have v_{AT}=(95km/h)-(75Km/h)=20Km/h.

So the train (<em>anyone in fact</em>) will watch the automobile trying to cover the lenght of the train L at that relative speed. The time required to do this will be:

t = \frac{L}{v_{AT}} = \frac{1.3Km}{20Km/h} = 0.065h=234s

And in that time the car would have traveled (<em>relative to the ground</em>):

d=v_At=(95Km/h)(0.065h)=6.175Km

If they are traveling in opposite directions, <u>we have to do all the same</u> but using v_{AT}=v_A+v_T (<em>the train must see the car advancing at a faster speed</em>), so repeating the process:

v_{AT}=(95km/h)+(75Km/h)=170Km/h

t = \frac{L}{v_{AT}} = \frac{1.3Km}{170Km/h} = 0.00765h=27.53s

d=v_At=(95Km/h)(0.00765h)=0.73Km

5 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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Answer:

Explanation:

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V = 4/3 * π * a^3

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p = Q/V

p = 3*Q/(4 * π * a^3)

If the charge density depends on the radius:

p = f(r) = k * r

I integrate the charge density in spherical coordinates. The charge density integrated in the whole volume is equal to total charge.

Q = \int\limits^{2*\pi}_0\int\limits^\pi_0  \int\limits^r_0 {k * r} \, dr * r*d\theta* r*d\phi

Q = k *\int\limits^{2*\pi}_0\int\limits^\pi_0  \int\limits^r_0 {r^3} \, dr * d\theta* d\phi

Q = k *\int\limits^{2*\pi}_0\int\limits^\pi_0 {\frac{r^4}{4}} \, d\theta* d\phi

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Q = \frac{\pi^2 r^4}{2}}

Since p = k*r

Q = p*π^2*r^3 / 2

Then:

p(r) = 2*Q / (π^2*r^3)

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