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JulsSmile [24]
2 years ago
6

One mole of magnesium (6 × 1023 atoms) has a mass of 24 grams, as shown in the periodic table on the inside front cover of the t

extbook. The density of magnesium is 1.7 grams/cm3. What is the approximate diameter of a magnesium atom (length of a bond) in a solid block of the material? Make the simplifying assumption that the atoms are arranged in a "cubic" array, as shown in the figure. Remember to convert to SI units.
Physics
1 answer:
natka813 [3]2 years ago
7 0

This question involves the concepts of density, volume, and mass.

The approximate diameter of a magnesium atom is "3.55 x 10⁻¹⁰ m".

<h3>STEP 1 (FINDING MASS OF INDIVIDUAL ATOM)</h3>

It is given that:

Mass of one mole = 24 grams

Mass of 6 x 10²³ atoms = 24 grams

Mass of 1 atom = \frac{24\ grams}{6\ x\ 10^{23}\ atoms} = 4 x 10⁻²³ grams

<h3>STEP 2 (FINDING VOLUME OF A SINGLE ATOM)</h3>

\rho = \frac{m}{V}\\\\V=\frac{m}{\rho}

where,

  • \rho = density = 1.7 grams/cm³
  • m = mass of single atom = 4 x 10⁻²³ grams
  • V = volume of single atom = ?

Therefore,

V=\frac{4\ x\ 10^{-23}\ grams}{1.7\ grams/cm^3}

V = 2.35 x 10⁻²³ cm³

<h3>STEP 3 (FINDING DIAMETER OF ATOM)</h3>

The atom is in a spherical shape. Hence, its Volume can be given as follows:

V =\frac{\pi d^3}{6}\\\\d=\sqrt[3]{ \frac{6V}{\pi}}\\\\d=\sqrt[3]{ \frac{6(2.35\ x\ 10^{-23}\ cm^3)}{\pi}}

d = 0.355 x 10⁻⁷ cm = 3.55 x 10⁻¹⁰ m

Learn more about density here:

brainly.com/question/952755

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Trava [24]

Answer:

Their number should increase

Explanation:

The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon that causes the ejection of electrons from that metal as light shined onto a metal surface. Only certain frequencies of light can cause the ejection of electrons. However, if the frequency of the incident light is too low then no electrons were ejected even if the intensity of the light was very high. If the frequency of the light was higher then electrons were able to be ejected from the metal surface even if the intensity of the light was very low.

According to the accepted wave theory, light of any frequency will cause electrons to be emitted. Kinetic energy emitted by the electrons depends upon the intensity of light.

According to the accepted wave theory, number of electrons being ejected by the metal should increase

5 0
3 years ago
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Degger [83]

Answer:

why would you waste points

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Water enters the constant 130-mm inside-diameter tubes of a boiler at 7 MPa and 65°C and leaves the tubes at 6 MPa and 450°C wit
snow_lady [41]

The inlet velocity is 1.4 m/s and inlet volume is 0.019 m³/s.

Explanation:

When water entering the tube of constant diameter flows through the tube, it exhibits continuity of mass in the hydrostatics. So the mass of water moving from the inlet to the outlet tend to be same, but the velocity may differ.

As per mass flow equality which states that the rate of flow of mass in the inlet is equal to the product of area of the tube with the velocity of the water and the density of the tube.

Since, the inlet volume flow is measured as the product of velocity with the area.

Inlet volume flow=Inlet velocity*Area*time

And the mass flow rate is  

Mass flow rate in the inlet=density*area*inlet velocity*time

Mass flow rate in the outlet=density*area*outlet velocity*time

Since, the time and area is constant, the inlet and outlet will be same as

(Mass inlet)/(density*inlet velocity)=Area*Time

(Mass outlet)/(density*outlet velocity)=Area*Time

As the ratio of mass to density is termed as specific volume, then  

(Specific volume inlet)/(Inlet velocity)=(Specific volume outlet)/(Outlet velocity)

Inlet velocity=  (Specific volume inlet)/(Specific volume outlet)*Outlet velocity

As, the specific volume of water at inlet is 0.001017 m³/kg and at outlet is 0.05217 m³/kg and the outlet velocity is given as 72 m/s, the inlet velocity

is

Inlet velocity = \frac{0.001017}{0.05217}*72 =1.4035 m/s

So, the inlet velocity is 1.4035 m/s.

Then the inlet volume will be

Inlet volume = inlet velocity*area of circle=\pi  r^{2}*inlet velocity

As the diameter of tube is 130 mm, then the radius is 65 mm and inlet velocity is 1.4 m/s

Inlet volume = 1.4*3.14*65*65*10^{-6} =0.019 \frac{m^{3} }{s}

So, the inlet volume is 0.019 m³/s.

Thus, the inlet velocity is 1.4 m/s and inlet volume is 0.019 m³/s.

4 0
3 years ago
Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by
Ulleksa [173]

A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

E) r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

\Delta U = qV

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

F=qvB

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

which can be rewritten as

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

And substitutin into (4), we find:

r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

6 0
3 years ago
You plan to take a trip to the moon. Since you do not have a traditional spaceship with rockets, you will need to leave the eart
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

v = 3.5 \times 10^5 m/s

Explanation:

At some distance from the Earth the force of attraction due to moon is balanced by the force due to Moon

so we will have

\frac{GM_em}{r^2} = \frac{GM_m}{(d-r)^2}

now we have

\frac{d - r}{r} = \sqrt{\frac{M_m}{M_e}}

\frac{3.844\times 10^8 - r}{r} = \sqrt{\frac{7.36 \times 10^{22}}{5.9742\times 10^{24}}}

so we will have

r = 3.46 \times 10^8 m

Now by energy conservation

-\frac{GM_e}{R_e} - \frac{GM_m}{d - (R_e + R_m)} + \frac{1}{2}v^2 = -\frac{GM_e}{r} - \frac{GM_m}{d - r}

-6.26 \times 10^{8} - 13046 + \frac{1}{2}v^2 = -1.15 \times 10^6 - 1.28 \times 10^5

v = 3.5 \times 10^5 m/s

7 0
3 years ago
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