How can 1% of 300 be used to determine 64% of 300? Enter your answers in the boxes to correctly complete the statement. Please h
1 answer:
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Complete Question
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Answer:
a
b
c
I would be surprised because the value is very small , less the 0.05
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question we are told that
The probability a randomly selected individual will not cover his or her mouth when sneezing is
Generally data collected from this study follows binomial distribution because the number of trials is finite , there are only two outcomes, (covering , and not covering mouth when sneezing ) , the trial are independent
Hence for a randomly selected variable X we have that
The probability distribution function for binomial distribution is
Considering question a
Generally the the probability that among 12 randomly observed individuals exactly 8 do not cover their mouth when sneezing is mathematically represented as
Here C denotes combination
So
Considering question b
Generally the probability that among 12 randomly observed individuals fewer than 5 do not cover their mouth when sneezing is mathematically represented as
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Considering question c
Generally the probability that fewer than half(6) covered their mouth when sneezing(i.e the probability the greater than half do not cover their mouth when sneezing) is mathematically represented as
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I would be surprised because the value is very small , less the 0.05
