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Akimi4 [234]
2 years ago
12

The graph below shows a line of best fit for data collected on the average heights of children.

Mathematics
2 answers:
mestny [16]2 years ago
8 0
A. 41 inches
look where the line of best fit intercepts at 6 on the x axis.
a_sh-v [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. 41

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the number 6 and follow the line until it shows you the number, which 41

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In the equation 8x - 1=3x+4 the variable x represents the same value. Which value of x is the solution of the equation x = 0 1 2
OleMash [197]

the AnSwEr is

12 because 8x - 1=3x+4 the variable x represents the same value and x= 0

7 0
3 years ago
What is the degree of the monomial?<br> 3.25 + 2x2 - y+3
disa [49]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

The degree is just the number with the highest power. In this case, it is 3^5. Therefore, 5 is the degree.

If this helps please mark as brainliest

8 0
3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to 6 – (–8)?<br> –6 + 8<br> –6 + –8<br> 6 + –8<br> 6 + 8
Jet001 [13]
I think that the answer would be 6+-8 because it equals -2 and 6-(-8)= -2
8 0
3 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression has a value of 507<br> O A. 2x52<br> B. 2 x 55<br> C. 5 x 52<br> D. 5x25
d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

.............,...........,.......................... ans is b

7 0
3 years ago
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