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Ahat [919]
2 years ago
9

R560 invested at 8% p.a. simple interest for 3 years​

Mathematics
2 answers:
alexdok [17]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

R 694.4

Explanation:

simple interest = \sf{\dfrac{PRT}{100} → \sf \dfrac{560*8*3}{100} → R 134.4

where p refers to principal, r refers to rate, t refers to time.

total money:

invested money + simple interest

R 134.4 + R 560 → R 694.4

Otrada [13]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

R 694.40

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple interest formula:

A = P(1 + rt)

where A is the final amount, P is the initial principal balance, r is the annual interest rate (in decimal format), and t is time (in years)

Given:

  • P = 560
  • r = 8% = 0.08
  • t = 3

⇒ A = 560(1 + 0.08 · 3)

⇒ A = 560(1.24)

⇒ A = 694.40

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8.5b−3.4∙(13a−3.2b)+a
Nesterboy [21]

Answer:

8.5b - 3.4(13a - 3.2b) + a = 19.4b - 43.2a

Step-by-step explanation:

It is a simple mathematical problem with multiple like terms. We can solve it by applying basic mathematical rules of multiplication and addition/subtration.

8.5b - 3.4(13a - 3.2b) + a

= 8.5b - 3.4*13a -3.4*(-3.2b) + a

= 8.5b - 3.4*13a + 3.4*3.2b + a

= 8.5b - 44.2a + 10.88 b + a

Now, only like terms can be added to each other

= (8.5b + 10.9b) + (a - 44.2a)

= 19.4b + (-43.2a)

= 19.4b - 43.2a    

8 0
3 years ago
Please look below for the question :)
rewona [7]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Does this help?

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 h
vladimir2022 [97]

A) The probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.

B) The probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.

C) The probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.

<h2 /><h2><u>How to determine probabilities</u></h2>

Since a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 holes each, to determine A) what is the probability the golfer got zero or one hole -in-one during a single game, B) what is the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game, and C) what is the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game , the following calculations must be performed:

  • 1 - 0.12 = 0.88
  • 0.88 ^ 17 = 0.1138
  • 0.88 ^ 18 = 0.1001

Therefore, the probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.

  • 0.88 ^ 18 - 0.12 ^ 2 = X
  • 0.0857 = X

Therefore, the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.

  • 0.12 ^ 6 x 0.88 ^ 12 = X
  • 0.0000000001 = X

Therefore, the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.

Learn more about probabilities in brainly.com/question/25273534

3 0
3 years ago
Construct ΔXYZ in which XY = 4.5 cm, YZ = 5 cm and ZX = 6 cm. (Plus could you tell me which sides i can use for starting the dia
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

  see attached

Step-by-step explanation:

I find it usually works well to draw the longest side first. Then draw arcs with radii equal to the other two side lengths. They will cross at an angle that makes the position of the third point easy to find.

4 0
2 years ago
If F(x) and 1(x) are inverse functions of each other and f(x) = 2x+5, what is (8)?
evablogger [386]

23 i used an app use should also give that a try

8 0
3 years ago
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