Answer:
40 V
Explanation:
I will assume that the resistors are
100 and 3900 and 1000 OHMS <=====(NOT W)
In series , the resistances add together 100 + 3900 + 1000 = 5000 ohms total
V = IR
I = V / R so the total current will be 200 v / 5000 ohms = .04 amps
this is the current through all of the resistors
so for the 1000 ohm resistor V = IR .04 (1000) = 40 V
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I guess it’s d) isobaric mate correct me if I am wrong :D
Answer:
The mechanical advantage of a machine is the ratio of the load (the resistance overcome by a machine) to the effort (the force applied). For an ideal (without friction) mechanism, it is also equal to: There is no unit for mechanical advantages since the unit for both input and output forces cancel out.
Explanation:
