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tamaranim1 [39]
2 years ago
6

 State how a ray of light can travel from air into glass without bending?

Physics
1 answer:
Katyanochek1 [597]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

If you shine a beam of light (a bundle of parallel rays) through the air, it will travel in a straight line. Rays of light usually travel in straight lines until they hit something. If a ray of light hits the surface of a sheet of glass, some light will be reflected by the surface of the glass.

Explanation:

STREAM LALISA AND MONEY

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An airplane is heading due south at a speed of 430 km/h . A wind begins blowing from the northwest at a speed of 85.0 km/h (aver
Igoryamba

Answer:

It should fly 8° to west of south at 430km/h

Explanation:

According to the diagram. X components for both velocities must have the same magnitude in order to get the resultant velocity due south.

V_{w}*cos(45) = V_{A}*sin(\alpha )   Solving for α:

α = 8.03°

5 0
2 years ago
Proposed Exercise - Circular Movement
notka56 [123]

Answer:

ωB = 300 rad/s

ωC = 600 rad/s

Explanation:

The linear velocity of the belt is the same at pulley A as it is at pulley D.

vA = vD

ωA rA = ωD rD

ωD = (rA / rD) ωA

Pulley B has the same angular velocity as pulley D.

ωB = ωD

The linear velocity of the belt is the same at pulley B as it is at pulley C.

vB = vC

ωB rB = ωC rC

ωC = (rB / rC) ωB

Given:

ω₀A = 40 rad/s

αA = 20 rad/s²

t = 3 s

Find: ωA

ω = αt + ω₀

ωA = (20 rad/s²) (3 s) + 40 rad/s

ωA = 100 rad/s

ωD = (rA / rD) ωA = (75 mm / 25 mm) (100 rad/s) = 300 rad/s

ωB = ωD = 300 rad/s

ωC = (rB / rC) ωB = (100 mm / 50 mm) (300 rad/s) = 600 rad/s

5 0
2 years ago
18)
Nina [5.8K]
Number 18 is C, i thin

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A young parent is dragging a 65 kg (640 N) sled (this includes the mass of two kids) across some snow on flat ground, by means o
Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

b) N = 560 N, c)  fr = 138.56 N, d)  μ = 0.247

Explanation:

a) In the attachment we can see the free body diagram of the system

b) Let's write Newton's second law on the y-axis

              N + T_y -W = 0

              N = W -T_y

let's use trigonometry for tension

             sin θ = T_y / T

             cos θ = Tₓ / T

             T_y = T sin θ

             Tₓ = T cos θ

we substitute

              N = W - T sin 30

we calculate

              N = 640 - 160 sin 30

              N = 560 N

c) as the system goes at constant speed the acceleration is zero

X axis

              Tₓ - fr = 0

               Tₓ = fr

we substitute and calculate

              fr = 160 cos 30

              fr = 138.56 N

d) the friction force has the formula

             fr = μ N

             μ = fr / N

we calculate

             μ = 138.56 / 560

             μ = 0.247

4 0
2 years ago
List the laws of solid friction​
kumpel [21]

Answer:

The force of friction acts in opposite direction in which the surface is having tendency to move.

The force of friction is equal to force applied to surfaces, so long as surface is at rest.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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