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Elina [12.6K]
2 years ago
14

If a lever has an input arm of 80 cm and an output arm of 20 cm, what is its ideal mechanical advantage?

Physics
1 answer:
Alexeev081 [22]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

16

Explanation:

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Elastic Energy is stored in it.
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3 years ago
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A very strong, but inept, shot putter puts the shot straight up vertically with an initial velocity of 11.0 m/s. how long does h
noname [10]
The shot putter should get out of the way before the ball returns to the launch position.

Assume that the launch height is the reference height of zero.
u = 11.0 m/s, upward launch velocity.
g = 9.8 m/s², acceleration due to gravity.

The time when the ball is at the reference position (of zero) is given by
ut - (1/2)gt² = 0
11t - 0.5*9.8t² = 0
t(11 - 4.9t) = 0
t = 0 or t = 4.9/11 =  0.45 s

t = 0 corresponds to when the ball is launched.
t = 0.45 corresponds to when the ball returns to the launch position.

Answer: 0.45 s
7 0
3 years ago
The electron's velocity at that instant is purely horizontal with a magnitude of 2 \times 10^5 ~\text{m/s}2×10 ​5 ​​ m/s then ho
Lesechka [4]

Complete question:

At a particular instant, an electron is located at point (P) in a region of space with a uniform magnetic field that is directed vertically and has a magnitude of 3.47 mT. The electron's velocity at that instant is purely horizontal with a magnitude of 2×10​⁵​​ m/s then how long will it take for the particle to pass through point (P) again? Give your answer in nanoseconds.

[<em>Assume that this experiment takes place in deep space so that the effect of gravity is negligible.</em>]

Answer:

The time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.

Explanation:

F = qvB

Also;

F = \frac{MV}{t}

solving this two equations together;

\frac{MV}{t} = qVB\\\\t = \frac{MV}{qVB} = \frac{M}{qB}

where;

m is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

q is the charge of electron = 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

B is the strength of the magnetic field = 3.47 x 10⁻³ T

substitute these values and solve for t

t = \frac{M}{qB} = \frac{9.11 *10^{-31}}{1.602*10^{-19}*3.47*10^{-3}} = 1.639 *10^{-9}  \ s \ = 1.639 \ ns

Therefore, the time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.

5 0
3 years ago
In this schematic, the total resistance is 50 ohms. 100 ohms. 1,000 ohms. 100 ohms 10,000 ohms
Mrrafil [7]

The total resistance of the given circuit is if the circuit contains 100ohms,1000 ohms,100 ohms and 10,000 ohms resistors.

Resistance is measured in ohms, and it is represented by the Greek letter omega (Ω). Ohms are named after Georg Simon Ohm (1784-1854), a German physicist who concentrated on the connection between voltage, current and resistance. He is credited for planning Ohm's Regulation.

Resistance estimations are regularly taken to demonstrate the state of a part or a circuit.

  • The higher the resistance, the lower the ongoing current. On the off chance that strangely high, one potential reason (among many) could be harmed guides because of consuming or erosion.
  • The lower the obstruction, the higher the ongoing stream. Potential causes: protectors harmed by dampness or overheating.

Since resistors are connected in series, so we know that when resistors are connected in series, total resistance is given by the formula

Rₙ=R₁+R₂+R₃+---------------Rₙ

So, resistors value are 50 ohms. 100 ohms. 1,000 ohms. 100 ohms 10,000 ohms.

Therefore, total resistance is 50+100+1000+100+10000=10250ohm

Hence, total resistance is 10250ohm

To know more about resistance, visit here:

brainly.com/question/29427458

#SPJ4

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