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2 years ago

When will you say a body is in a) uniform acceleration (b) non uniform acceleration

Physics

1 answer:

s2008m [1.1K]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

See below ~

Explanation:

Part (a) :

We can say a body is in uniform acceleration if the acceleration of the object remains constant with respect to time throughout its motion.

Part (b) :

We can say a body is non-uniform acceleration if the acceleration of the body varies with respect to time throughout its motion.

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A 150 kg safe on frictionless casters is being raised at 1.20m to the bed of a truck using planks 4m long. The force needed to p

Vesnalui [34]

The only thing you need to know in order to solve this task is that plank length (which is force x), should equal the increase in potential energy, so what we have now : (mass)* g * (height).
It has to look like that: 
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Then solve for F, the result should be in newtones = 588N

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3 years ago

What do we measure sound intensity in?

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3 years ago

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Very far from earth (at R- oo), a spacecraft has run out of fuel and its kinetic energy is zero. If only the gravitational force

Margaret [11]

Answer:

Speed of the spacecraft right before the collision: $\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e}}{R\text{e}}}$ .

Assumption: the earth is exactly spherical with a uniform density.

Explanation:

This question could be solved using the conservation of energy.

The mechanical energy of this spacecraft is the sum of:

the kinetic energy of this spacecraft, and
the (gravitational) potential energy of this spacecraft.

Let $m$ denote the mass of this spacecraft. At a distance of $R$ from the center of the earth (with mass $M_\text{e}$ ), the gravitational potential energy ( $\mathrm{GPE}$ ) of this spacecraft would be:

$\displaystyle \text{GPE} = -\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R}$ .

Initially, $R$ (the denominator of this fraction) is infinitely large. Therefore, the initial value of $\mathrm{GPE}$ will be infinitely close to zero.

On the other hand, the question states that the initial kinetic energy ( $\rm KE$ ) of this spacecraft is also zero. Therefore, the initial mechanical energy of this spacecraft would be zero.

Right before the collision, the spacecraft would be very close to the surface of the earth. The distance $R$ between the spacecraft and the center of the earth would be approximately equal to $R_\text{e}$ , the radius of the earth.

The $\mathrm{GPE}$ of the spacecraft at that moment would be:

$\displaystyle \text{GPE} = -\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}$ .

Subtract this value from zero to find the loss in the $\rm GPE$ of this spacecraft:

$\begin{aligned}\text{GPE change} &= \text{Initial GPE} - \text{Final GPE} \\ &= 0 - \left(-\frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}\right) = \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}} \end{aligned}$

Assume that gravitational pull is the only force on the spacecraft. The size of the loss in the $\rm GPE$ of this spacecraft would be equal to the size of the gain in its $\rm KE$ .

Therefore, right before collision, the $\rm KE$ of this spacecraft would be:

$\begin{aligned}& \text{Initial KE} + \text{KE change} \\ &= \text{Initial KE} + (-\text{GPE change}) \\ &= 0 + \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}} \\ &= \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}\end{aligned}$ .

On the other hand, let $v$ denote the speed of this spacecraft. The following equation that relates $v\!$ and $m$ to $\rm KE$ :

$\displaystyle \text{KE} = \frac{1}{2}\, m \cdot v^2$ .

Rearrange this equation to find an equation for $v$ :

$\displaystyle v = \sqrt{\frac{2\, \text{KE}}{m}}$ .

It is already found that right before the collision, $\displaystyle \text{KE} = \frac{G \cdot M_\text{e}\cdot m}{R_\text{e}}$ . Make use of this equation to find $v$ at that moment:

$\begin{aligned}v &= \sqrt{\frac{2\, \text{KE}}{m}} \\ &= \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e} \cdot m}{R_\text{e}\cdot m}} = \sqrt{\frac{2\, G\cdot M_\text{e}}{R_\text{e}}}\end{aligned}$ .

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The answer is Monocline. And I checked it, it's correct.

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