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2 years ago

Energy travels at right angles to the direction of the vibrating particles in ________ waves.

Physics

1 answer:

marshall27 [118]2 years ago

5 0

Energy travels at right angles to the direction of the vibrating particles in Transverse waves

<h3>What is a transverse wave oceanography?</h3>

Energy can flow from one spot to another in a wave phenomenon, but the particles of matter in the medium return to their fixed position. A wave transmits energy without moving mass. Although waves can be observed moving through an ocean or lake, the water always returns to its resting place. The medium's particles just vibrate in situ. As they vibrate, the energy of the disturbance is passed on to the particles next to them, who then pass it on to the particles next to them, and so on.

Transverse waves can only go through solids, but longitudinal waves can travel through solids, liquids, and gases.

Transverse waves cause the medium to travel perpendicular to the wave's direction.

Learn more about Transverse waves refer:

brainly.com/question/13863548

#SPJ4

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Gravitational Potential Energy = mass x gravity x height

Blizzard [7]

M= gpe / gh
G= gpe / mh
H=gpe / mg

7 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A 500 W hair dyer is used to dry hair for 6 minutes a day for 3 days. How much energy is used? A laptop uses 75 W. The cot of el

zzz [600]

Answer:

See the answers below.

Explanation:

We will solve this problem by calculating each part separately.

A 500 W hair dyer is used to dry hair for 6 minutes a day for 3 days.

Energy can be calculated by multiplying the value of the power of the equipment by the amount of time of use.

$500 [W]*[\frac{6min}{1day} ]*[\frac{1day}{24hr} ]*[\frac{1hr}{60min} ]=2.083 [W]$

The cots of electricity is 5.6 cents per kWh. How much would it cost to operate the laptop for 24 hours a day for one week?

We know that the power of the latop is 75 [W], then we can calculate the cost, multiplying the value of the power by the value of the cost by the time of use of the computer.

$0.075[kW]*5.6[\frac{cents}{kw*h}}]*[\frac{24hr}{1day}]*[1week]*[\frac{7days}{1week} ]=70.56 [cents]$

A toaster oven is 85% efficient. It uses 1200 J of energy. How much thermal energy is it producing?

Efficiency is defined as the relationship between the energy obtained on the energy delivered. Almost always the energy delivered is greater than the energy obtained (first law of thermodynamics).

Therefore.

$Effic = E_{obtained}/E_{delivered}\\0.85=E_{obtained}/1200\\E_{obtained}=1020[J]$

4 0

3 years ago

NEED ANSWERED ASAP!! will give brainliest!

kotegsom [21]

The kinetic energy of any moving object is

K.E. = (1/2) (mass) (speed)² .

To use this simple formula, the 'mass' has to be in kilograms,
and the 'speed' has to be in meters-per-second.

You can see that we have a slight problem that has to be cleaned up:
The speed in the question is given in "kilometers per hour", but we'll
need it in "meters per second". So let's convert that right now:

(600 km/hour) x (1 hour / 3600 seconds) x (1000 meters / km)

= (600 x 1 x 1000 / 3600) (km-hour-meters / hour-second-km)

= 166.67 meters/second .

Now we're ready to plug numbers into the formula for K.E.

(1/2) (mass) (speed)²

= (1/2) (80,000 kg) (166.67 m/s)²

= (40,000 kg) (27,777.8 m²/s²)

= 1,111,111,111 kg-m²/s²

= 1.1... x 10⁹ Joules (choice D)

8 0

3 years ago

A swimmer of mass 64.38 kg is initially standing still at one end of a log of mass 237 kg which is floating at rest in water. He

nikklg [1K]

Answer:

0.9432 m/s

Explanation:

We are given;

Mass of swimmer;m_s = 64.38 kg

Mass of log; m_l = 237 kg

Velocity of swimmer; v_s = 3.472 m/s

Now, if we consider the first log and the swimmer as our system, then the force between the swimmer and the log and the log and the swimmer are internal forces. Thus, there are no external forces and therefore momentum must be conserved.

So;

Initial momentum = final momentum

m_l × v_l = m_s × v_s

Where v_l is speed of the log relative to water

Making v_l the subject, we have;

v_l = (m_s × v_s)/m_l

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

v_l = (64.38 × 3.472)/237

v_l = 0.9432 m/s

8 0

3 years ago

Two charges are located in the x x – y y plane. If q 1 = − 2.75 nC q1=−2.75 nC and is located at ( x = 0.00 m , y = 0.600 m ) (x

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\vec{E}=(-15.78\hat{i}+63.81\hat{j})\frac{N}{C}$

Explanation:

In this case we have to work with vectors. Firs of all we have to compute the angles between x axis and the r vector (which points the charges):

$\theta_1=tan^{-1}(\frac{0.6m}{0m})=90\° \\\\\theta_2=tan^{-1}(\frac{0.4m}{1.3m})=17.10\°$

the electric field has two components Ex and Ey. By considering the sign of the charges we obtain that:

$\vec{E} = E_x \hat{i}+E_y\hat{j}\\\\\vec{E}=(E_1cos\theta_1-E_2cos\theta_2)\hat{i}+(E_1sin\theta_1-E_2sin\theta_2)\hat{j}\\\\E_1=k\frac{q}{r_1^2}=(8.99*10^{9}\frac{N}{m^2C^2})\frac{2.75*10^{-9}C}{(0.6m)^2}=68.67\frac{N}{C}\\\\E_2=k\frac{q}{r_2^2}=(8.99*10^{9}\frac{N}{m^2C^2})\frac{3.40*10^{-9}C}{((1.3m)^2+(0.4m)^2)}=16.52\frac{N}{C}$

Hence, by replacing E1 and E2 we obtain:

$\vec{E}=[(68.67N/C)cos(90\°)-(16.52N/C)cos(17.10\°)]\hat{i}+[(68.67N/C)sin(90\°)-(16.52N/C)sin(17.10\°)]\hat{j}\\\\\vec{E}=(-15.78\hat{i}+63.81\hat{j})\frac{N}{C}$

hope this helps!!

3 0

3 years ago