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2 years ago

A sinusoidal sound wave moves through a medium and is described by the displacement wave function

Physics

1 answer:

labwork [276]2 years ago

7 0

By applying the wave equation we know that the displacement on the y-axis is 1.999 micrometers.

We need to know about wave equations to solve this problem. The displacement of the wave on the y-axis can be explained by the wave equation

y = A cos (kx - ωt)

where y is y-axis displacement, A is amplitude, k is wave number, x is x-axis displacement, ω is angular speed and t is time.

the wavenumber and angular speed of the wave equation can be determined respectively by

k = 2π / λ

ω = 2πf

where k is the wavenumber, λ is wavelength and f is frequency.

From the question above, we know that:

y = 2.00cos (15.7x - 858t)

(x in meters, t in second, y in micrometers)

x = 0.05 m

t = 3 ms

Convert time to second

t = 3ms = 0.003 s

By applying the wave equation, we get

y = 2.00cos (15.7x - 858t)

y = 2.00cos (15.7(0.05) - 858(0.003))

y = 2 cos(-1.789)

y = 1.999 micrometers

For more on wave equation on: brainly.com/question/25699025

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A rectangular loop of area A is placed in a region where the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magni

mina [271]

Answer:

Induced emf, $\epsilon=-A\dfrac{B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}}{\tau}$

Explanation:

The varying magnetic field with time t is given by according to equation as :

$B=B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}$

Where

$B_{max}\ and\ t$ are constant

Let $\epsilon$ is the emf induced in the loop as a function of time. We know that the rate of change of magnetic flux is equal to the induced emf as:

$\epsilon=-\dfrac{d\phi}{dt}$

$\epsilon=-\dfrac{d(BA)}{dt}$

$\epsilon=-A\dfrac{d(B)}{dt}$

$\epsilon=-A\dfrac{d(B_{max}e^{-t/\tau})}{dt}$

$\epsilon=A\dfrac{B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}}{\tau}$

So, the induced emf in the loop as a function of time is $A\dfrac{B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}}{\tau}$ . Hence, this is the required solution.

7 0

3 years ago

An electric field of intensity 3.80 kN/C is applied along the x-axis. Calculate the electric flux through a rectangular plane 0.

lakkis [162]

Answer: 1.55 x 10⁴ Nm²c^-1

Explanation: The electric flux, electric field intensity and area are related by the formulae below.

Φ= EAcosθ,

Where Φ= electric flux (Nm²c^-1)

E =electric field intensity (N/m²)

A = Area (m²)

θ= this is angle between the planar area and the magnetic flux

For our question E=3.80KN/c= 3800 N/c

A= 0.700 x 0.350= 0.245m²

θ= 0° ( this is because the electric field was applied along the x axis, thus the electric flux will be parallel to the area).

Hence Φ= 3800 x 0.245 x cos(0)

= 3800 x 0.245 x 1 (value of cos 0° =1)

= 1.55 x 10⁴ Nm²c^-1

Thus the electric field is 1.55 x 10⁴ Nm²c^-1

4 0

3 years ago

Choose all the answers that apply.

Serhud [2]

<span>According to Newton's first law of motion:

-- objects at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force

-- objects in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force

</span>

8 0

3 years ago

Using Rayleigh's criterion, calculate the diameter of an earth-based telescope that gives this resolution with 700 nm light.

pogonyaev

Complete Question

Due to blurring caused by atmospheric distortion, the best resolution that can be obtained by a normal, earth-based, visible-light telescope is about 0.3 arcsecond (there are 60 arcminutes in a degree and 60 arcseconds in an arcminute).Using Rayleigh's criterion, calculate the diameter of an earth-based telescope that gives this resolution with 700 nm light

Answer:

The diameter is $D = 0.59 \ m$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The best resolution is $\theta = 0.3 \ arcsecond$

The wavelength is $\lambda = 700 \ nm = 700 *10^{-9 } \ m$

Generally the

1 arcminute = > 60 arcseconds

=> x arcminute => 0.3 arcsecond

$x = \frac{0.3}{60 }$

=> $x = 0.005 \ arcminutes$

Now

60 arcminutes => 1 degree

0.005 arcminutes = > z degrees

=> $z = \frac{0.005}{60 }$

=> $z = 8.333 *10^{-5} \ degree$

Converting to radian

$\theta = z = 8.333 *10^{-5} * 0.01745 = 1.454 *10^{-6} \ radian$

Generally the resolution is mathematically represented as

$\theta = \frac{1.22 * \lambda }{ D}$

=> $D = \frac{1.22 * \lambda }{\theta }$

=> $D = \frac{1.22 * 700 *10^{-9} }{ 1.454 *10^{-6} }$

=> $D = 0.59 \ m$

4 0

3 years ago

What caused magnetic fields? What happens If you keep breaking a magnet in two until you reach a single atom?

mote1985 [20]

magnetic materials will produce magnetic field near it

All magnets are made up of small magnet type atoms which are known as domains

These all atoms will align itself so that they all produce strong magnetic field along the axis

this magnetic field will become more strong as more number of atoms are aligned.

Now if we break the magnet into small piece then the magnetic field strength will start decreasing and at the end when only one atom will remain then the magnetic field strength will reduce to the field of one atom only.

6 0

3 years ago