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11 months ago

Find the electron and hole concentrations and fermi level in silicon at 300 k for boron

1 answer:

4 0

To find the electron and hole concentrations and fermi levels in silicon at 300 k for boron, fermi level is 9.3 x $10^4 cm^-3$ .

<h3>Calculation and Explanation</h3>

Ionization energy for boron in Si, 0.045 eV

Fermi level in silicon,

300 K at $10^{15} cm^{-3}$ (Boron atoms)

All boron impurities are ionized, 300K

Electron, hole concentrations and Fermi levels is found out,

The value of Na = $10^{15} cm^{-3}$

np = $\frac{ni^2}{nA}$

np = $\frac{(9.65 x 10^9)^2}{10^15}$

np= 9.3 x $10^4 cm^-3$

Fermi level is calculated,

Ef - Ev = kT ln(NV/ND)

value of kT = 0.0259 eV (300° K)

So, substitution the values

Ef - Ev = kT ln(NV/ND)

Ef - Ev = 0.0259ln (2.66 x $10^{19} / 10^{15}$ )

Ef - Ev = 0.0259ln (26600)

Ef - Ev = 0.0259 x 10.18

Ef - Ev = 0.263 eV

What is ionization energy?

Ionization energy, also known as ionization energy (IE) or ionization energy (British English spelling), is the minimal amount of energy needed to free the most loosely bonded electron from an isolated gaseous atom, positive ion, or molecule in physics and chemistry.

To know more about ionization energy, visit:

brainly.com/question/16243729

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Hank and Harry are two ice skaters whiling away time by playing 'tug of war' between practice sessions. They hold on to opposite

Alex73 [517]

Answer:

the ratio of Hank's mass to Harry's mass is 0.7937 or [ 0.7937 : 1

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Hank and Harry are two ice skaters, since both are on top of ice, we assume that friction is negligible.

We know that from Newton's Second Law;

Force = mass × Acceleration

F = ma

Since they hold on to opposite ends of the same rope. They have the same magnitude of force |F|, which is the same as the tension in the rope.

Now,

Mass $_{Hank$ × Acceleration $_{Hank$ = Mass $_{Henry$ × Acceleration $_{Henry$

Mass $_{Hank$ / Mass $_{Henry$ = Acceleration $_{Henry$ / Acceleration $_{Hank$

given that; magnitude of Hank's acceleration is 1.26 times greater than the magnitude of Harry's acceleration,

Mass $_{Hank$ / Mass $_{Henry$ = 1 / 1.26

Mass $_{Hank$ / Mass $_{Henry$ = 0.7937 or [ 0.7937 : 1 ]

Therefore, the ratio of Hank's mass to Harry's mass is 0.7937 or [ 0.7937 : 1 ]

8 0

2 years ago

What is 178.57 rounded to the nearest whole number

postnew [5]

<h2><em>THANK</em><em> </em><em>YOU</em><em> </em></h2>

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the formula for the moment of inertia of the person/single particle rotating in a circle? (Give these values with a subs

Ann [662]

Moment of inertia of single particle rotating in circle is I1 = 1/2 (m*r^2)

The value of the moment of inertia when the person is on the edge of the merry-go-round is I2=1/3 (m*L^2)

Moment of Inertia refers to:

the quantity expressed by the body resisting angular acceleration.
It the sum of the product of the mass of every particle with its square of a distance from the axis of rotation.

The moment of inertia of single particle rotating in a circle I1 = 1/2 (m*r^2)

here We note that the,

In the formula, r being the distance from the point particle to the axis of rotation and m being the mass of disk.

The value of the moment of inertia when the person is on the edge of the merry-go-round is determined with parallel-axis theorem:

I(edge) = I (center of mass) + md^2

d be the distance from an axis through the object’s center of mass to a new axis.

I2(edge) = 1/3 (m*L^2)

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7 0

2 years ago

An electron, moving south, enters a uniform magnetic field. Because of this uniform magnetic field, the electron curves upward.

Flura [38]

Answer:

Towards the west

Explanation:

Magnetic force is the interaction between a moving charged particle and a magnetic field.

Magnetic force is given as

F = q (V × B)

Where F is the magnetic force

q is the charge

V is the velocity

B is the magnetic field

V×B means the cross product of the velocity and the magnetic field

NOTE:

i×i=j×j×k×k=0

i×j=k. j×i=-k

j×k=i. k×j=-i

k×i=j. i×k=-j

So, if the electron is moving southward, then, it implies that the velocity of it motion is southward, so the electron is in the positive z-direction

Also, the electron is curved upward due to the magnetic field, this implies that the force field is directed up in the positive y direction.

Then,

V = V•k

F = F•j

Then, apply the theorem

F •j = q ( V•k × B•x)

Let x be the unknown

From vector k×i =j.

This shows that x = i

Then, the magnetic field point in the direction of positive x axis, which is towards the west

You can as well use the Fleming right hand rule

The thumb represent force

The index finger represent velocity

The middle finger represent field

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3 years ago

An object increases its velocity from 22 m/s to 36 m/s in 5 s. What is the acceleration of the

gregori [183]

Explanation:

Using Kinematics,

we have a = (v - u) / t.

Therefore a = (36m/s - 22m/s) / 5s = 2.8m/s².

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2 years ago