120 minutes=2 hours
20/2= 10mph
1. farther
2. true
the equator is a weirdo
The angular acceleration of a rotating object is given by

where

is the final angular speed of the object

is its initial angular speed

is the time taken to accelerate
For the wheel in our problem,

,

and

, so its angular acceleration is
I would have to say B failed because I think I read something about it being only 2law not 3
Answer:
Explanation:
Given the following :
Speed (V) = speed of 2.30×10^7 m/s
Acceleration (a) = 1.70×10^13 m/s^2
Using the right hand rule provided by Lorentz law:
B = F / qvSinΘ
Where B = magnitude of the magnetic field
v = speed of the particle
Θ = 90° (perpendicular to the field)
q = charge of the particle
SinΘ = sin90° = 1
Note F = ma
Therefore,
B = ma / qvSinΘ
Mass of proton = 1.67 × 10^-27
Charge = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
B = [(1.67 × 10^-27) × (1.70 × 10^13)] / (1.6 × 10^-19) × (2.30 × 10^7) × 1
B = 2.839 × 10^-14 / 3.68 × 10^-12
B = 0.7715 × 10^-2
B = 7.72 × 10^-3 T
2) Magnetic field will be in the negative y direction according to the right hand thumb rule.
Since Velocity is in the positive z- direction, acceleration in the positive x - direction, then magnetic field must be in the negative y-direction.