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Firdavs [7]
3 years ago
14

The number of consumers can never exceed the number of producer in nature, why​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gala2k [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

it cannot

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason for this is because if there are more consumers than producers the producers will not be able to keep up with demand and the product will be fought over, toilet paper in the modern day is a good example

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Please calculate this limit <br>please help me​
Tasya [4]

Answer:

We want to find:

\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\sqrt[n]{n!} }{n}

Here we can use Stirling's approximation, which says that for large values of n, we get:

n! = \sqrt{2*\pi*n} *(\frac{n}{e} )^n

Because here we are taking the limit when n tends to infinity, we can use this approximation.

Then we get.

\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\sqrt[n]{n!} }{n} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\sqrt[n]{\sqrt{2*\pi*n} *(\frac{n}{e} )^n} }{n} =  \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{e*n} *\sqrt[2*n]{2*\pi*n}

Now we can just simplify this, so we get:

\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{e} *\sqrt[2*n]{2*\pi*n} \\

And we can rewrite it as:

\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{e} *(2*\pi*n)^{1/2n}

The important part here is the exponent, as n tends to infinite, the exponent tends to zero.

Thus:

\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{e} *(2*\pi*n)^{1/2n} = \frac{1}{e}*1 = \frac{1}{e}

7 0
2 years ago
Explain how to evaluate f(g(0)).
alekssr [168]

Answer as a fraction:  17/6

Answer in decimal form: 2.8333  (approximate)

==================================================

Work Shown:

Let's use the two black points to determine the equation of the red f(x) line.

Use the slope formula to get...

m = slope

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m = (4-0.5)/(2-(-1))

m = (4-0.5)/(2+1)

m = 3.5/3

m = 35/30

m = (5*7)/(5*6)

m = 7/6

Now use the point slope form

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y - 0.5 = (7/6)(x - (-1))

y - 0.5 = (7/6)(x + 1)

y - 0.5 = (7/6)x + 7/6

y = (7/6)x + 7/6 + 0.5

y = (7/6)x + 7/6 + 1/2

y = (7/6)x + 7/6 + 3/6

y = (7/6)x + 10/6

y = (7/6)x + 5/3

So,

f(x) = (7/6)x + 5/3

We'll use this later.

---------------------

We ultimately want to compute f(g(0))

Let's find g(0) first.

g(0) = 1 since the point (0,1) is on the g(x) graph

We then go from f(g(0)) to f(1). We replace g(0) with 1 since they are the same value.

We now use the f(x) function we computed earlier

f(x) = (7/6)x + 5/3

f(1) = (7/6)(1) + 5/3

f(1) = 7/6 + 5/3

f(1) = 7/6 + 10/6

f(1) = 17/6

f(1) = 2.8333 (approximate)

This ultimately means,

f(g(0)) = 17/6 as a fraction

f(g(0)) = 2.8333 as a decimal approximation

8 0
2 years ago
How do u do (number 30)... please list step by step... <br><br>​
andrezito [222]

Answer:

the screen is really blurry sorry bout that

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Help me with this question!! I’m
topjm [15]

Step-by-step explanation:

there isn't any question if there would be i would answer

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
X, Y and Z form the vertices of a triangle. XY = 12.4m, XZ = 10.4m and YZ = 8.7m. Find the angle ∠ YXZ rounded to 1 DP.
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

43.8°

Step-by-step explanation:

Applying,

Cosine rule,

From the diagram attached,

x² = y²+z²-2yxcos∅.................... Equation 1

where ∅ = ∠YXZ

Given: x = 8.7 m, y = 10.4 m, z = 12.4 m

Substitute these values  into equation 1

8.7² = 10.4²+12.4²-[2×10.4×12.4cos∅]

75.69 = (108.16+153.76)-(257.92cos∅)

75.69 = 261.92-257.92cos∅

collect like terms

257.92cos∅ = 261.92-75.69

257.92cos∅ = 186.23

Divide both sides by the coefficient of cos∅

cos∅ = 186.23/257.92

cos∅ = 0.722

Find the cos⁻¹ of both side.

∅ = cos⁻¹(0.7220)

∅ = 43.78°

∅ = 43.8°

6 0
2 years ago
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