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galina1969 [7]
3 years ago
15

For one minute Every 5th caller will win a Music player and every 7th caller

Mathematics
1 answer:
Assoli18 [71]3 years ago
8 0

to do this you have to find the lcm of 5 & 7 which is 35

-hope this helps

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Tom earns ​$24 a week mowing lawns. He spends 1/8 of his earnings on lunch and 3/4 of his earnings on music. He saves the rest.
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

$3

Step-by-step explanation:

24-3-18=3

3 0
3 years ago
Solve 10x^5y^12/-5x^-2y^6
Stells [14]
<span><span>(<span><span><span><span>10<span>x5</span></span><span>y12</span></span><span>−5</span></span><span>x<span>−2</span></span></span>)</span><span>(<span>y6</span>)</span></span><span>=<span><span>−<span><span>2<span>x5</span></span><span>y18</span></span></span><span>x2</span></span></span><span>=<span>−<span><span>2<span>x3</span></span><span>y<span>18</span></span></span></span></span>
5 0
3 years ago
5k-7=-7<br> solve the equation to what is k
LenKa [72]
So 5k-7=-7
You need to do the opposite of addition,which is subtraction so...
5k-7=-7
+7
__
K=0
and to double check it,replace the (or variable) with our answer (0)...
so
5×0-7=-7
solve the problem...and
-7=-7√
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Divide £700 in the ratio 6:4 (2 marks)
SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

One num = 6x = 6 x 70 = 420

Second= 4x = 4 x 70 = 280

Step-by-step explanation:

6x + 4x = 700

10x = 700

x = 700/10 = 70

One num = 6x = 6 x 70 = 420

Second= 4x = 4 x 70 = 280

I hope im right!

7 0
3 years ago
What is the definite integral of log (tan x) with range from 90 to 0
nasty-shy [4]

Substituting <em>x</em> with <em>π</em>/2 - <em>x</em> gives the equivalent integral,

\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan(x))\,\mathrm dx=-\int_{\frac\pi2}^0\log(\cot(x))(-\mathrm dx)=\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot(x))\,\mathrm dx

So if we let <em>J</em> denote the value of the integral, we have

J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan (x))\,\mathrm dx

J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot (x))\,\mathrm dx

\implies 2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\left(\log(\tan (x))+\log(\cot (x))\right)\,\mathrm dx

Condensing the logarithms, we have

log(tan(<em>x</em>)) + log(cot(<em>x</em>)) = log(tan(<em>x</em>) cot(<em>x</em>)) = log(1) = 0

since cot(<em>x</em>) = 1/tan(<em>x</em>), which means

2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}0\,\mathrm dx=0

and so the original integral has a value of <em>J</em> = 0.

3 0
3 years ago
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