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Katyanochek1 [597]
3 years ago
5

We can block light by placing obstacles in its path, but it’s much more difficult to block sound. Why?

Physics
2 answers:
Ivanshal [37]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Because light propagate in a straight path, while sound moves in all directions.

Explanation:

The rectilinear propagation of light proves that light travels on a straight path. With this, any opaque obstacle in its path would absorb the major fraction and reflect little fraction of the light. Light is an electromagnetic wave and transverse in nature.

Sound travels in all directions and it requires material medium (majorly air)  for its propagation. Thus, it is not easy to obstruct the propagation of sound. It is a mechanical wave and longitudinal in nature.

Olin [163]3 years ago
7 0
Sound spreads through some kind of medium. Most of the time the medium is usually air. Sound can go through walls, like when you are playing really loud music and the neighbors tell you its to loud, you can't block it because it can travel through objects. Light does not need a medium to travel with. if you put a light in a room with no windows and no cracks, and you seal off the door the light can't escape that room, but if you did the same thing with sound it would travel trough the walls.
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zepelin [54]

Answer:

d=42m(-\hat{i})

Explanation:

For this problem, we need to apply the formulas of constant accelerated motion.

To obtain the boat displacement we need to calculate the displacement because of the river flow and the displacement done because of the boat motor.

for the river:

d_r=v*t\\d_r=5m/s*6s\\d_r=30m(\hat{i})

for the boat:

x=\frac{1}{2}*a*t^2\\\\x=\frac{1}{2}*4.0m/s*(6s)^2\\\\\\x=72m(-\hat{i})

So the final displacement is given by:

d=dr+x\\d=30m-72m\\d=42m(-\hat{i})

8 0
3 years ago
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Your starship, the Aimless Wanderer,lands on the mysterious planet Mongo. As chief scientist-engineer,you make the following mea
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

m = 1.26*10²⁵ kg.

Explanation:

Assuming that the mass of the stone is much smaller than the mass of the planet, we can get the mass, applying the Universal Law of  Gravitation to both masses, as follows:

Fg = G* ms* mp / rp²

Now, if we apply Newton's 2nd Law to the mass of the stone, we can get the gravitational acceleration, as follows:

Fg = ms*a = ms*g ⇒ g = G*mp / rp²

First of all, we need to get the value of g.

Assuming that this acceleration is constant, we can appy the kinematic equations to this situation.

We know that the stone is thrown upward with an initial velocity vo = 15 m/s.

At the highest point in the trajectory, just before of changing direction, the stone comes momentarily to a stop.

At this point, applying the definition of acceleration, we can write:

vf = vo -g*t ⇒ 0 = vo -gt ⇒ g = vo/t (1)

We have the total time since the stone was thrown upwards, not the one used for the upward trajectory.

It can be showed, using the expression for the displacement (which is the same in both directions) that the time used for going up, it's the same used to go down, so the time that we need to put in (1). is just the half of the total time.

So, replacing in (1) we get the value of g, as follows:

g = 15 m/s / 4.5 s = 3.33 m/s²

Now, we can replace this value in the equation that gives us g based in the Universal Law of Gravitation, as follows:

g=G*mp / rp² (2)

Before solving for mp, however, we need to get the value of the radius of the planet.

Assuming that it's a perfect sphere, we can get this value from the value of the circumference at the planet's equator:

rp = 2*π*rp / 2*π ⇒ rp = 1.0*10⁵ km / 2*π = 15,915 km.

With this value for  rp, we can solve (2) for mp, as follows:

mp= g*rp² / G = 3.33 m/s² * (15,915 km)² / 6,67*10⁻¹¹ N.m²/kg²

mp = 1.26*10²⁵ kg.

8 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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3 years ago
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NARA [144]

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Hope this helps. Chao.

7 0
3 years ago
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creativ13 [48]

Answer:

At momentum zero, kinetic energy = zero

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Explanation:

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