When did diesel locomotives replace steam locomotives?

A uniform sphere (I = 2/5 MR 2 ) rolls down an incline. (a) What must be the incline angle if the linear acceleration of the cen

Liono4ka [1.6K]

Answer:

Part a)

$\theta = 8.05 degree$

Part b)

$a = 1.37 m/s^2$

Explanation:

As the uniform sphere is rolling down the inclined plane then the net force on the sphere is given as

$mg sin\theta - F_f = ma$

also we have torque equation on it

$F_f R = I\alpha$

for pure rolling

$a = R \alpha$

$F_f = \frac{Ia}{R^2}$

now we have

$mg sin\theta = ma + \frac{Ia}{R^2}$

now we have

$mg sin\theta = (m + \frac{2}{5}m)a$

$a = \frac{5}{7}g sin\theta$

now given that

$a = 0.10 g$

so we have

$0.10 g = \frac{5}{7} g sin\theta$

$sin\theta = 0.14$

$\theta = 8.05 degree$

Part b)

If the inclined plane is frictionless then the acceleration is given as

$a = g sin\theta$

$a = 9.8(0.14)$

$a = 1.37 m/s^2$

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Help ME QUICK PLEASE QUESTION 2 AND 4 PLEASE 58 POINTS

monitta

Answer:

For number 4: A vector pointing to the right with a magnitude of 2.0

Explanation:

Very simple- just subtract 6-2

I am not sure how to do #2- sorry!

6 0

3 years ago

A 1.0 kg ball falls from rest a distance of 19.6 m.

Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer:

192.08J

19.6m/s

Explanation:

Since there will be no potential energy when the ball is on the ground, the change in potential energy is equal to the potential energy at the start when the ball is 19.6m above the ground.

PE=mgh

=(1)(9.8)(19.6)

=192.08J

v²=u²+2as, where v is the final velocity, u is initial velocity, a is acceleration and s is distance. Initial velocity is 0 since it starts at rest.

v²=u²+2as

v²=0²+2(9.8)(19.6)

v=√384.16

=19.6m/s

6 0

2 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

3 years ago

A phoneme is the largest unit of sound in a word.

lukranit [14]

This question is incomplete; here is the complete question:

A phoneme is the largest unit of sound in a word. Please select the best answer from the choices provided

A. T

B. F

The correct answer to this question is F (False)

Explanation:

The word "phoneme" is used to refer to the minimal unit of sound in words, and therefore in language. For example, the first phoneme in the word "man" is "m". These units of sound are essential in language because they make each word unique in meaning and sound. For example, "fan" and "man" are different due to the phonemes "m" and "f". According to this, the phone is not the largest unit of sound but the smallest unit.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers